bon said:
I'm trying to understand this a bit better..
so let M' be the diagonalised matrix of eigenvectors.. obviously AT = A if it is diagonal
if the eigenvectors that make up M are orthonormal, then surely either S-1MS or SMS-1 will work..
If the eigenvectors are not orthonormal, which one will be the one that gives the diagonalized version of M and why?
Thanks
I'll try to explain, but I'm not sure that I remember a really clean way to get this. Let \{ \mathbf{v}_i \} be an orthonormal basis for M with associated eigenvalues \lambda_i. Let S be the matrix that has the \mathbf{v}_i as its columns, so
S = \begin{pmatrix} \mathbf{v}_1 & \mathbf{v}_2 & \cdots & \mathbf{v}_n \end{pmatrix}.
By constructionS^{-1} = S^T = \begin{pmatrix} \mathbf{v}_1^T \\ \mathbf{v}_2^T \\ \vdots \\ \mathbf{v}_n^T \end{pmatrix},
which is the matrix with the \mathbf{v}_i^T as its rows.
Then
M S = \begin{pmatrix}\lambda_1 \mathbf{v}_1 & \lambda_2\mathbf{v}_2 & \cdots &\lambda_n \mathbf{v}_n \end{pmatrix}
and
S^T M S = \text{diag}~(\lambda_1, \ldots, \lambda_n) \equiv \Lambda.
From this we conclude that, with the given choice of S,
M = S \Lambda S^T,
while
S^T \Lambda S = M^T.
In the case of your original question, R was symmetric, so these were equal. Also note that S M S^T has no obvious special form.