One point I think should be made: watch what you say! In particular, watch where you put "=". The most natural interpretation of
y=lnx
=1/x
is that you are saying that y is equal to both ln x and 1/x- so they are equal to each other.
Be very careful that you say
y= ln x,
y'= ln x.
As to how you prove them, that depends strongly on how you define the functions!
If you define ax by first defining an= "product of a with itself n times" as long as n is a positive integer, then extend to all rational numbers by requiring that ax+y= axay and axy= (ax)y for x,y any rational numbers, and finally extending to any real number by "continuity", then you can use the "difference quotient":
\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{a^(x+h)-a^x}{h}= \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{a^xa^h- a^x}{h}= \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{a^h- 1}{h} a^x[/itex]<br />
You can prove that \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}(a^h- 1)/h exists for a any positive number, so that the derivative of a^x is a constant times a^x and then define e to be the number such that that constant is 1.<br />
Having done that, define ln(x) to be the inverse function to e^x. If y= ln(x) then x= e^y so dx/dy= e^y= x and then dy/dx= 1/x.<br />
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Conversely, it has become common in calculus books to define ln(x) as ln(x)= \int_1^x (1/t)dt so that we have immediately from the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus that d(ln x)/dx= 1/x. Then define exp(x) to be the inverse function to ln(x) and we have: if y= e^x then x= ln(y) so dx/dy= 1/y and dy/dx= y= e^x[/sup].