Hi everyone,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I'm studying electron-electron scattering, starting with the Dirac equation it ends up calculating the invariant transition amplitude, defined as:

[tex]-iM=(ie{\overline{u}^f}_A}\gamma^\mu u^i}_A) \frac{-ig_{\mu\nu}}{q^2}(ie{\overline{u}^f}_B}\gamma^\nu u^i}_B)[/tex]

With [tex]u_A[/tex] and [tex]u_B[/tex] the electron spinors (initial and final)

After this it says that in the nonrelativistic limit a Dirac-delta spin-spin term arises in the corresponding potential. How is that?

Could anyone explain where does this dirac-delta come from? (And btw a better book to study QED)

Thanks

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Dirac-delta term in a non-relativistic interaction

Loading...

Similar Threads - Dirac delta term | Date |
---|---|

A Positive and negative plane wave solutions of Dirac equation | Feb 27, 2018 |

A Invariance of Dirac Lagrangian | Feb 26, 2018 |

A Transformation of solutions of the Dirac equation | Feb 20, 2018 |

A Transformation of Dirac spinors | Feb 16, 2018 |

I Why are delta resonances close in width | Feb 3, 2017 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**