In dispersion relation diagrams, where omega is plotted against k, omega is sometimes nonzero at k=0. How is this possible? I thought a wave had to have a nonzero wavenumber
Also, you could easily be reading a reduced zone scheme, in which the band from the next zone is folded back into the first zone.
Zz.
#5
kanato
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Optical phonons occur in crystals which have more than one atom per unit cell. If you have a phonon with k=0 that means the displacement of atoms is the same in every cell. When you have only one atom per cell, then a k=0 displacement is just a shift of the whole crystal, so there can't be a restoring force (hence, \omega=0). But if you have more than one atom per unit cell then the atoms could displace relative to one another (eg. like a bond-stretching mode). Then you can have a k=0 wave, where the displacement is the same in each cell, but the atoms in the cell move relative to one another. Then you will have a restoring force, and have \omega > 0 for this type of phonon.
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Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...