Distance from one period to the next, ##e## in helical path.

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The discussion focuses on calculating the distance an electron travels in a magnetic field before crossing its initial injection point again. The user derived the formula for the distance, incorporating the angle of injection and the magnetic field's properties. Initially, there was confusion regarding the application of the Lorentz force and the period of motion due to the angle not being 90 degrees. Upon reevaluation, the user corrected their approach by recognizing the need to account for the component of velocity perpendicular to the magnetic force. The issue was resolved, confirming the correct application of physics principles in the calculation.
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Homework Statement


A source injects an electron of speed ##v## into a uniform magnetic field of magnitude ##B##. The velocity of the electron makes an angle ##\theta## with the direction of the magnetic field. Find the distance ##d## from the point of injection at which the electron next crosses the field that passes through the injection point.

Homework Equations


##F_B=m\frac{v^2}{r}##
##T=\frac{2\pi r}{v}##

The Attempt at a Solution



We want to find how much vertical displacement there is in one period essentially. To find ##T## in terms on known quantities:

$$
F_B=q(v\times B)=qvB\sin\theta=\frac{v^2}{r}\Longrightarrow r=\frac{mv}{qB\sin\theta} \\
T=\frac{2\pi r}{v}=\frac{2\pi m}{qB\sin\theta}
$$

Now the vertical displacement would be given by ##v\cdot\cos\theta## multiplied by the time (period in this case) Therefore:
$$
d=v\cos\theta\cdot \frac{2\pi m}{qB\sin\theta}=\frac{2\pi m v \mbox{ cotan }\theta}{qB}
$$

In my solution manual however they have completely neglected ##F_B=q(v\times B)## and just used the result for when ##\theta=90## (##F_B=qvB##), in the textbook the angle given is not equal to 90 so this isn't the case. Is there something I'm missing here or did they solve it incorrectly?

Edit: Some errors in my derivation:

$$F_B=qvB\sin\theta=m\frac{v^2}{r}$$

the velocity ##v^2/r## in this term is the velocity that is perpendicular to the force so it becomes: ##qvB\sin\theta=m\frac{(v\sin\theta)^2}{r}## This solves the problem.
 
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