So I found this article(albeit rather dated) questioning they physical existence of Black Holes and what really struck me were some of the comments by physicists Jose M Pecina-Cruz who may or may not be on physicsforums but nevertheless, this is what he had to say about it: So there is also a more recent (scholarly) article here arguing that the Oppenheimer-Snyder collapse of a uniform ball of dust does not result in a singularity. But Pecina-Cruz' arguments are based in quantum mechanics which begs the question: Does quantum mechanics bind GR? By that I mean that GR can never violate Quantum Mechanics but the converse isn't necessarily true. Theory aside, one of the defining Black Hole characteristics(I'm not going to cover naked singularities and the cosmic censorship hypothesis for now) is an event horizon. Now the thing is, TMK there already is a known object whose event horizon has been physically detected(& partially observed already)! It also shows evidence of gravitational lensing, swallowing up stars, and fame dragging. That object is at or very near to Sagittarius A* in the Galactic Center. And now there is this scientific white paper making the case from observational data that a black hole exists in Sagittarius A* and drawing a plan to produce an image of this black holes event horizon. So it appears that despite theoretical objections to Black Hole formation, such an object does indeed exist without a doubt. I think I answered my question earlier about QM binding GR: clearly it doesn't. I'll try not to speculate much further but perhaps when the scalar curvature of space time reaches a certain threshold limit during gravitational collapse(since the curvature is negative here then I am speaking in terms of absolute value), the uncertainty principle of quantum mechanics actually breaks down. Thoughts?