Does additivity apply to Fourier transform of the wave function

Heimisson
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I was wondering if this is correct:

\phi(k-a)=\phi(k)-\phi(a)

Where k=p/h (h bar that is) and a is some constant and \phi is the Fourier transform of a wave function (momentum function).

I know that if I had some real formula for \phi I could just test this but the problem isn't like that.

I fairly recently started studying quantum mechanics so I'm still in that stage of having a bit of trouble connecting the physics and mathematics.

thanks
 
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A typical wavefunction is a plane wave expressed as eikx. Is

eik(x-a) = eikx - eika?
 
this was a stupid question...never mind
 

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