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let f:U \rightarrow R^n be a differentiable function with a differentiable inverse f^{-1}: f(u) \rightarrow R^n. if every closed form on U is exact, show that the same is true for f(U).
Hint: if dw=0 and f^{\star}w = d\eta, consider (f^{-1})^{\star}\eta.
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I'm not quite sure what the hint means or how to use it. is it true that f^{\star} is basically another way of writing a differential - eg. df? I didn't really get a clear definition of it in my text.
anyway here's my thoughts so far:
consider w as a form on U. suppose w is closed. then dw = 0. since every closed form on U is exact, then there exists a \eta on U such that w = d\eta.
but how is it that f^{\star}w = d\eta (given in the hint)? like, how is this relationship derived? if w = d\eta and also f^{\star}w = d\eta, then we have w = f^{\star}w? I find that really confusing, and I'm not sure how to continue the problem. Any help is greatly appreciated. thanks in advance!
Hint: if dw=0 and f^{\star}w = d\eta, consider (f^{-1})^{\star}\eta.
---------------------------------------------------
I'm not quite sure what the hint means or how to use it. is it true that f^{\star} is basically another way of writing a differential - eg. df? I didn't really get a clear definition of it in my text.
anyway here's my thoughts so far:
consider w as a form on U. suppose w is closed. then dw = 0. since every closed form on U is exact, then there exists a \eta on U such that w = d\eta.
but how is it that f^{\star}w = d\eta (given in the hint)? like, how is this relationship derived? if w = d\eta and also f^{\star}w = d\eta, then we have w = f^{\star}w? I find that really confusing, and I'm not sure how to continue the problem. Any help is greatly appreciated. thanks in advance!