Does Faraday's Law Hold True in All Inertial Frames?

AI Thread Summary
Faraday's Law of electromagnetic induction maintains the same form across all inertial frames, supporting the principles of Special Relativity. This consistency in electromagnetic phenomena is foundational to the theory, which relies on the constancy of the speed of light. Faraday's Law is derived from Maxwell's equations, emphasizing its integral role in electromagnetic theory. Observational evidence consistently confirms the invariance of these laws across different frames of reference. Thus, Faraday's Law is a key element in understanding the relationship between electromagnetism and relativity.
FermatPell
Messages
21
Reaction score
0
Prove that Faraday's Law of electromagnetic induction has the same form in all inertial frames.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Wasn't it the observed fact that electromagnetic phenomena hold the same in all inertial frames that resulted in the theory of Special Relativity?
Faraday's law is just a progenitor of Maxwell's equations, which in turn require the velocity of light to be a constant.
Observation confirms that it IS.
 
Thread 'Motional EMF in Faraday disc, co-rotating magnet axial mean flux'

Thread 'Motional EMF in Faraday disc, co-rotating magnet axial mean flux'

So here is the motional EMF formula. Now I understand the standard Faraday paradox that an axis symmetric field source (like a speaker motor ring magnet) has a magnetic field that is frame invariant under rotation around axis of symmetry. The field is static whether you rotate the magnet or not. So far so good. What puzzles me is this , there is a term average magnetic flux or "azimuthal mean" , this term describes the average magnetic field through the area swept by the rotating Faraday...
View full post »

Thread 'Why measure the speed of light in one direction?'

It may be shown from the equations of electromagnetism, by James Clerk Maxwell in the 1860’s, that the speed of light in the vacuum of free space is related to electric permittivity (ϵ) and magnetic permeability (μ) by the equation: c=1/√( μ ϵ ) . This value is a constant for the vacuum of free space and is independent of the motion of the observer. It was this fact, in part, that led Albert Einstein to Special Relativity.
View full post »

Similar threads

An Interesting Question on Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction
Replies
11
Views
3K
Is there a difference between Faraday’s induction experiments?
Replies
23
Views
2K
I Reason for Opposite Signs for Terms in Faraday's Law and Ampere's Law
Replies
15
Views
2K
I B-Fields: Deriving Faraday's Law & Why No Work?
Replies
6
Views
1K
I How does a ferromagnet increase the inductance of an inductor?
Replies
3
Views
2K
Faraday's Law with Zero Resistance Current Loop
Replies
2
Views
7K
How Does the Vector Potential Influence Faraday's Law of Induction?
Replies
6
Views
2K
Some confusion of Faraday's law of induction.
Replies
5
Views
2K
Maxwell's Law of Induction - How Does it Work?
Replies
7
Views
3K
Faraday's Law & Motional EMF Confusion
Replies
3
Views
3K

Hot Threads

Recent Insights

Back
Top