Does logic hold true outside our reality (spacetime)?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on whether logic is universally applicable outside our spacetime, contrasting it with the unique laws of physics. It highlights that logic relies on axioms, which can vary, leading to different conclusions based on the chosen axioms. For instance, while traditional arithmetic follows certain logical principles, alternative systems like boolean algebra can yield different results. The conversation suggests that exploring concepts beyond our universe is speculative and not conducive to productive discussion. Ultimately, the nature of logic may not be as absolute as initially presumed.
mitcho
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We know that the laws of physics are unique to our universe, that is they only hold true in our spacetime. My question is about logic and if logic holds true outside our universe unlike the laws of physics. For example, if we say that x>y and z>x then we can conclude that z>y is true by logic. Does this logic still true? Why/why not?
Thanks.
 
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mitcho said:
We know that the laws of physics are unique to our universe, that is they only hold true in our spacetime. My question is about logic and if logic holds true outside our universe unlike the laws of physics. For example, if we say that x>y and z>x then we can conclude that z>y is true by logic. Does this logic still true? Why/why not?
Thanks.

Even in our universe logic depends on axioms. The example you gave:
if we say that x>y and z>x then we can conclude that z>y is true

is an axiom that can be used do prove some theorems.

But you can use another axiom:

if x>y and z>x then y>z is true

This axiom would be used to prove another set of theorems.

An example:

In arithmetic 1 + 1 = 2.

In boolean algebra 1 + 1 = 1.
 
Yes and no.
 
I'm sorry, but discussions of things "outside our universe" are too speculative for the PF. Thread closed.
 
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