harvey1 said:
Okay, let's view our universe as 3+1 dimensional object. The 3+1 dimensional object exists without cause. Each event in that 3+1 dimensional object is causeless (since the object as a whole exists without a cause, each individual component of that object exists without a cause).
StatusX said:
This doesn't follow. Cause is something that, like time, is completely contained within our universe. In fact, causation is not a meaningul concept in the absense of time. So just because our universe doesn't have a cause doesn't mean none of the events inside it have a cause.
You have a 3+1 dimensional object, you are saying that its existence has nothing to do with whether it was caused or not? Is this structure not your primitive? If so, then it is uncaused. If it is not your primitive, then what is your primitive?
By the way, causation and time are not as intertwined as you suggest. In a 3+1 dimensional universe, such a universe could be a baby universe to a universe having many more spatial and temporal dimensions. Also, a quantum theory might require that the classical 'arrow of time' is an emergent property of our universe, with quantum phenomena being the causal structure to this temporal property of the universe.
StatusX said:
My reply can be traced back to events earlier in my life which gave me my opinions, and all of these events can be traced back further and further to tiny fluctuations in the structure of matter and energy in the universe nanoseconds after the big bang. The big bang, or whatever you believe to be the earliest point in time, does not need a cause, because there was no causation before this point, because there was no "before this point."
A temporally finite uncaused beginning is a little different story than a temporally infinite uncaused beginning, but if there is no zero time, then Zeno's infinitestimal paradox seems like it would be a problem for you. That is, you never have an earliest moment in time since you can always get closer to 'zero time' by scaling down from seconds to milliseconds to microseconds to nanoseconds to attoseconds, etc. In that case, there is no first event unless you are prepared to say the first event was an infinitestimal, in which case the whole 3+1 timeline must be considered a collection of infinitestimal moments. In that case, all of these infinitestimal moments are uncaused, not just the first moment.
StatusX said:
I'm not sure what you mean by "truth."
When I say ontological truth exists, I mean that there is a conceptual structure that exists which provides justification for certain axioms to exist, some of which instantiate the universe to exist. So, for example, let's say that Noether's symmetry arguments are axioms that instantiated the universe (speculatively speaking). Then, the symmetry axioms are said to exist because they are true. This conceptual structure called truth exists. It has certain properties that are interwoven with this structure. For example, Tarski's concept of satisfaction might be one of these interwoven properties. Perhaps coherence is another interwoven properties (i.e., some kind of ontological logic).
StatusX said:
You say that in the absense of truth there would just be "matter in some primitive composition of it." This does not make sense to me. For one thing, I don't see how the removal of an abstract human idea such as truth could affect the physical universe,
If looking at truth as an ontological structure, then humans have nothing to do with truth. Our only task is to identify it, if possible, but nothing in an ontological theory of truth means that humans have the ability to recognize or determine truth values of a statement.
StatusX said:
and futhermore, wouldn't the statement "Matter is in a primitive composition" be a true one in this alternate world(although again, I don't see what's different about it)?
The difference in the way you use the term 'truth' and the way that I use it in an ontological sense is that truth is an emergent property in a materialist worldview, whereas in an ontological view of truth, it is a primitive.
StatusX said:
Your basic argument seems to be that since we can make true statements about the universe, and only a conscious being could make such statements, there must be a god. Neither of the steps in this deduction are logically plausible.
No. Our ability to make statements (true or otherwise) has nothing to do with there being a God. My argument is that if ontological truth exists (i.e., as a conceptual structure: my primitive), then as an ontological structure it contains language which connects somehow to a state of affairs (i.e., truth is about something). Since only mind can connect language to a state of affairs, presupposing ontological truth also presupposes the existence of God.
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StatusX said:
A mind is not necessary for an ontological truth. The statement "there is a planet on the other side of the galaxy with an active volcano" has a definite ontological truth value, but no conscious being (that we know of) knows it. If you are arguing a god is necessary so that all such statements can be known, then you are, like I said in the last post, presupposing a god must exist for truth to exist.
I don't want to confuse our terms. By using the term 'ontology' I don't mean emergent features - I mean something that actually exists on its own, not dependent on something else for its existence. Bugs Bunny has an ontological truth value (i.e., there is a context which Bugs Bunny exists), but Bugs Bunny is an emergent truth value. Bugs depends on Hollywood, technology and human imagination to exist.
A planet on the other side of the galaxy with an active volcano can be true, but its truth depends on humans to organize material structures in terms of planets, galaxies, and volcanos. So, it does not necessarily qualify as an ontological truth value according to my definition.
Now, when I say that there is ontological truth to substantiate the state of affairs that exist, I have no idea what level this is happening. It might be as simple as verifying logico-mathematical axioms are indeed true in the universes which they are true for, and from there the whole universe results, or, it might be a complex modal language which sustains the universe from one moment to the next moment. It might even define the objects in our universe (e.g., valid wavefunctions). I have no clue. But, the main reason to believe such an ontological truth structure exists is because of causality. The causal chain of the universe is preserved by saying that causal relationships exist (e.g., the universe is a result of logico-mathematical statements, etc).
I see the materialist perspective either unable or inefficient to address the causal nature of the universe, whereas at a minimum, a logico-mathematical order preserves causality and makes sense of the causal events that we see daily.