- #1
Varon
- 548
- 1
Is it possible for the wave function collapse to be partial because you don't measure everything at once. Can you cite an example?
I read someone mentioned that it's only the superposition relating to the measured quantity that collapses and the superpostion is just expressing the state vector in an eigenbasis for a particular observable in QM, and that the collapse takes place in the view here it's expanded in the eigenstates of the operator. Is it true or mainstream belief?
Also is it true that "collapse may have an internal details that makes it smoother. For example, it takes a certain amount of new evidence to revise a prior expectation. So when you look into details, of position is ACTUALLY "measured" you get into more complicated things... often position is inferred indirectly from other primary observables. Such as momentum etc.". Can you cite any flaw? is this mainstream view?
I read someone mentioned that it's only the superposition relating to the measured quantity that collapses and the superpostion is just expressing the state vector in an eigenbasis for a particular observable in QM, and that the collapse takes place in the view here it's expanded in the eigenstates of the operator. Is it true or mainstream belief?
Also is it true that "collapse may have an internal details that makes it smoother. For example, it takes a certain amount of new evidence to revise a prior expectation. So when you look into details, of position is ACTUALLY "measured" you get into more complicated things... often position is inferred indirectly from other primary observables. Such as momentum etc.". Can you cite any flaw? is this mainstream view?