sponsoredwalk
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Hi I'm reading Euler's Introduction to Analysis of the Infinite & he's distinguishing between algebraic & transcendental functions and I wonder is the fact that the following function cannot be written explicitly a cause of "transcendentality".
Z^5 = az^2Z^3 - bz^4Z^2 + cz^3Z - 1
where Z is a function of z.
Maybe I've read it wrong or asked the question too soon but does being unable to write a function explicitly automatically make the answer transcendental?
Z^5 = az^2Z^3 - bz^4Z^2 + cz^3Z - 1
where Z is a function of z.
Maybe I've read it wrong or asked the question too soon but does being unable to write a function explicitly automatically make the answer transcendental?