Doubt on Ademollo-Gatto theorem proof

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the Ademollo-Gatto theorem in the context of semileptonic decay of the kaon. Participants are examining the proof of the theorem, particularly focusing on the matrix element \langle K^0|V_3|K^0\rangle and its value.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions why the matrix element \langle K^0|V_3|K^0\rangle is equal to 1, contrasting it with the expectation based on isospin where K0 has I3=1/2.
  • Another participant asserts that the V-spin of K0 is equal to 1, suggesting it belongs to a V-spin triplet.
  • A different participant proposes that the V-spin is related to transitions from K0 to π-, indicating that K0 should belong to a doublet, while the V-spin triplet consists of K+, K-, and π0/η8.
  • A later reply acknowledges the correction regarding the classification of the K0 state.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the classification of the K0 state and its relation to V-spin and isospin, indicating that multiple competing views remain without a clear consensus.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved assumptions regarding the definitions of V-spin and its relation to isospin, as well as the implications of the matrix element's value.

Einj
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I'm studying the semileptonic decay of the kaon and I'm currently reading about the Ademollo-Gatto theorem. The question is probably silly. However, here it is.
The proof starts by just considering that [itex][V_-,V_+]=V_3[/itex], where V is the V-spin. Now, we consider the matrix element [itex]\langle K^0|V_3|K^0\rangle=1[/itex].

I understand that the [itex]|K^0\rangle[/itex] state is an eigenstate of V3 (is the same thing that happens for the usual isospin), but why exactly 1? Consider for example the third component of isospin. As K0 has I3=1/2 I'd expect that matrix element to be 1/2. Why is 1?

Thanks
 
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Actually isn't the V-spin of the K0 equal to 1? It belongs to a V-spin triplet along with K0 bar and some linear combination of π0 and η0.
 
I'm not really sure but I think that that is the U-spin. The V-spin should be the operator that allows the transition from K0 to π- and so the K0 should belong to the doublet (K0-), while the V-spin triplet should be composed by K+, K- and π08. But, again, I'm not really sure.
 
Whoops, you are correct! :blushing:
 

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