Eigenvalues of Hamiltonian operator

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The discussion focuses on calculating the eigenvalues of a Hamiltonian operator defined as H = λ( (S^2 - (S1^2 + S2^2)) / 2 ). The user expresses difficulty in progressing with the general approach, particularly in determining the eigenvalues when H is represented as a matrix. They mention attempting to work with the eigenvalues of S but have not made significant progress. A suggestion is made to expand the operator S^2 and solve for the interaction term S1·S2, as its eigenvalues correspond to the right-hand side operator. The user seeks clarification on whether these eigenvalues are simply those of the individual spins.
Juli
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Homework Statement
Consider a system with two spin-1 particles, which is described by the Hamiltonian operator

## H = \lambda \vec{S}_1 \cdot \vec{S}_2 ##

with ##\lambda \in \mathbb{R} ##.

1. Express H in terms of the total spin ## \vec{S} = \vec{S}_1 + \vec{S}_2 ##.

2. What eigenvalues does H have and how are these degenerate?
Relevant Equations
##\vec{S}^2 = S(S+1)\hbar^2##
##\vec{S_1}^2 = S_1(S_1+1)\hbar^2##
##\vec{S_2}^2 = S_2(S_2+1)\hbar^2##
Hello, I try to solve this problem, and I think a) wasn't too hard, I have the following solution:

##H = \lambda (\frac{\vec{S^2-(\vec{S_1}^2+\vec{S_2}^2)}{2})##.
I struggle with 2. I find it very abstract. When I have H as a matrix I know how to calculate eigenvalues, but I don't know how to proceed with this general approach.

I tried to go somewhere with the eigenvalues of S, but I didn't get far...

Can someone help me solve this?
 
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Expand the right-hand side of the operator ##~S^2=(\vec S_1+\vec S_2)\cdot(\vec S_1+\vec S_2)~## and solve for the operator ##\vec S_1\cdot \vec S_2##. Its eigenvalues are the eigenvalues of the operator on the right-hand side.
 
I did the first task and got this ##H = \lambda (\frac{\vec{S^2-(\vec{S_1}^2+\vec{S_2}^2)}{2})##
But I don't know how to get the eigenvalues of the operator on the right-hand side. Are they the eigenvalues of the individual spins?
 
So is there some elegant way to do this or am I just supposed to follow my nose and sub the Taylor expansions for terms in the two boost matrices under the assumption ##v,w\ll 1##, then do three ugly matrix multiplications and get some horrifying kludge for ##R## and show that the product of ##R## and its transpose is the identity matrix with det(R)=1? Without loss of generality I made ##\mathbf{v}## point along the x-axis and since ##\mathbf{v}\cdot\mathbf{w} = 0## I set ##w_1 = 0## to...

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