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Hi all,
I'm trying to derive expressions for the EM-field of a charge moving at relativistic velocity.
Let's make a rest frame for the charge in which it's velocity is equal to zero.
The charge only produces an electric field with components:
E'(x)=k\frac{q}{R'^3}x'
E'(y)=k\frac{q}{R'^3}y'
Where x' and y' are components of R'.
Now to transform to another reference frame we have:
E(x)=E'(x)
E(y)=\gamma E'(y)
where \gamma = gamma factor in relativity
We will also have:
x'= \gamma R cos(\theta)
y'=y=R sin(\theta)
R'=\gamma R {(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}sin^2(\theta))^{(1/2)}}
Where \theta is the angle between R and x.
Putting this in above equations will give:
E(x)= \frac{kq(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2})}{R^3{(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}sin^2(\theta))^{(1,5)}}}R cos(\theta)
E(y)= \frac{kq(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2})}{R^3{(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}sin^2(\theta))^{(1,5)}}}R sin(\theta)
And the resulting electric field:
E= \frac{kq(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2})}{R^3{(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}sin^2(\theta))^{(1,5)}}}R
And the magnetic field can be obtained by:
B=v\times\frac{1}{c^2}E
I doubt this is right because when I set \theta=0 the electric field in the direction of motion is reduced by \gamma^2 even though E'(x) should be equal to E(x)?
I would gladly add a sketch of the situation if it isn't clear enough.
Thank you very much!
I'm trying to derive expressions for the EM-field of a charge moving at relativistic velocity.
Let's make a rest frame for the charge in which it's velocity is equal to zero.
The charge only produces an electric field with components:
E'(x)=k\frac{q}{R'^3}x'
E'(y)=k\frac{q}{R'^3}y'
Where x' and y' are components of R'.
Now to transform to another reference frame we have:
E(x)=E'(x)
E(y)=\gamma E'(y)
where \gamma = gamma factor in relativity
We will also have:
x'= \gamma R cos(\theta)
y'=y=R sin(\theta)
R'=\gamma R {(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}sin^2(\theta))^{(1/2)}}
Where \theta is the angle between R and x.
Putting this in above equations will give:
E(x)= \frac{kq(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2})}{R^3{(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}sin^2(\theta))^{(1,5)}}}R cos(\theta)
E(y)= \frac{kq(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2})}{R^3{(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}sin^2(\theta))^{(1,5)}}}R sin(\theta)
And the resulting electric field:
E= \frac{kq(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2})}{R^3{(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}sin^2(\theta))^{(1,5)}}}R
And the magnetic field can be obtained by:
B=v\times\frac{1}{c^2}E
I doubt this is right because when I set \theta=0 the electric field in the direction of motion is reduced by \gamma^2 even though E'(x) should be equal to E(x)?
I would gladly add a sketch of the situation if it isn't clear enough.
Thank you very much!
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