Encountered a WEIRD vertex-form equation

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The equation y=(x-1)^2 has a y-intercept of (0,1) because the vertex form does not directly indicate the y-intercept. In vertex form, y = a(x-p)² + q, the vertex is represented by the coordinates (p,q), where q is not the y-intercept. The confusion arises from mixing vertex form with the slope-intercept form, y=mx+b, where b represents the y-intercept. The discussion clarifies that in the vertex form, k is the y-coordinate of the vertex, not the y-intercept. Thus, the y-intercept must be calculated separately, confirming that k does not equal the y-intercept.
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Ok the equation: y=(x-1)^2

How come it has a y intercept of (0,1) but the equation does not have a
+1 at the end of it??

I thought all y-intercepts are at the end of the vertex-form equation.
 
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y = a(x-p)^{2} + q where (p,q) are the coordinates of the vertex. You are thinking of y=mx+b where b is the y-intercept.
 
Lol, yeah that's it. So only the equation of the line has the y-intercept in it. The h,k is only the vertex, k is not the y-intercept right?
 
k is the y-intercept, h is the x-intercent in the form y=a(x-h)^{2}+k
 
no its not. So if you have y = (x-2)^{2} + 6 your saying 2 is the x-intercept, and 6 is the y-intercept?
 
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