Energy/frequency relation in quantum waves

Ian
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I read this remark on a post in the classical physics section.

"Sound waves, unlike quantum waves, don't have frequency proportional to energy".

Can anyone expand on this for me?
Why is the frequency in quantum waves related to the wave energy?

Thanks,
Ian.
 
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It is the primitive postulate. Plank constant, which has units [h]=[p][x]=[E][t] is used to relate energy and frequency, and also momentum and wavelength.
 
Originally posted by Ian
I read this remark on a post in the classical physics section.

"Sound waves, unlike quantum waves, don't have frequency proportional to energy".

Can anyone expand on this for me?
Why is the frequency in quantum waves related to the wave energy?
Ian.
Energy dependens on frequency in many periodic classical systems. Consider an ellastic ball bouncing between two walls - the ball energy will grow with the square of the bounce-cycle frequency.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!

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