- #1
bedi
- 81
- 0
Show that if R1 and R2 are equivalence relations on a set X, then R1 is a subset of R2 iff every R2-class is the union of R1 classes.
Attempt: I don't understand that if R2 has elements nothing to do with the elements of R1, how can an R2 class be a union of those elements belonging to an R1 class?
Attempt: I don't understand that if R2 has elements nothing to do with the elements of R1, how can an R2 class be a union of those elements belonging to an R1 class?