Evaluate the definite integral

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the definite integral of the function \(\int \frac{x^2 \sin x}{1+x^6}dx\) from \(-\frac{\pi}{2}\) to \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). Participants are exploring the challenges posed by the sine function within the integral and its implications for integration techniques.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts various substitutions to simplify the integral but finds themselves stuck, particularly with the sine function. Some participants suggest considering the properties of the function, specifically its oddness, as a potential avenue for evaluation.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively discussing the characteristics of the function involved in the integral. There is a suggestion that the integral evaluates to zero due to the odd nature of the sine function over the symmetric interval, but this has not been universally agreed upon.

Contextual Notes

The original poster expresses a desire for hints rather than complete solutions, indicating a focus on learning and understanding the underlying concepts. The discussion also touches on the nature of the functions involved, specifically their odd and even properties.

sapiental
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hi,

I've been having difficulty with this integral for some time now and any help would be gratly appreciated.

\int\frac{x^2 \sin x}{1+x^6}dx

this is a definite integral from -pi/2 to pi/2

The sinx has been giving me problems because if I set u = to any part of the equation I can't write sin(u)

for example

u = x^2 du/2 = xdx
u = 1+x^6 du/6 = x^5dx
u = 1+x^3 du/2 = x^2dx

in all these cases I still get stuck with the sinx..

hints on how to approach this equation would be ideal becasue I need to learn how to do this myself.

Thank you!
 
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You won't be able to get the indefinite integral for that thing. But fortunately, you can use the fact the function is odd and the integration region is even.
 
hey thanks for the help everyone.

StatusX, what you're saying is that I can just write the final result as

\int \frac{x^2 \sin x}{1+x^6}dx = 0

and the function is odd because of sin(x) right?thanks
 
Last edited:
Yea, because it is an even function times an odd function.
 

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