Mandelbroth
- 610
- 24
Your first post in this thread proved the identity, actually.yungman said:I finally got the answer from Math Forum by Mathman
v=\pi-u\;\Rightarrow \;u=\pi-v,\;du=-dv
\int_{0}^{\pi}e^{jx\cos (u)}\cos(mu)du=-\int_{\pi}^{0}e^{jx\cos (\pi-v)}\cos(m\pi-mv)dv=\int_{0}^{\pi}e^{-jx\cos (v)}(-1)^m\cos(mv)dv
\theta=v\;\Rightarrow \;\int_{0}^{\pi}e^{-jx\cos (v)}(-1)^m\cos(mv)dv=\int_{0}^{\pi}e^{-jx\cos (\theta)}(-1)^m\cos(m\theta)d\theta
This is what I am looking for, a step by step proof that the two change of variable give the same exact answer. I know there got to be a way to proof identity.