Evidence for retrocausal interpretation of QM?

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This article about a recent experiment was just published the other day: http://phys.org/news/2015-02-hindsight-foresight-accurately-quantum-state.html

I can't help but think that this is at least weak evidence in favour of the retrocausal interpretation. Of course other interpretations aren't falsified by this, but how would for instance Bohm Or Everett account for this result?
 
Unfortunately, the phys.org article is very badly written. All the experiment did is show that if you use information from both before and after a measurement to guess the result of that measurement, your chances are much better than if you use only one of the two. Not terribly surprising and completely in accord with any interpretation you like.
 
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If it was true what's suggested in the phys.org article, it was either big blunder or a sensational new result going beyond all of known physics. As all physical theories, also quantum theory is strictly causal. I suggest, to better read the original article to make sense of it. It's on the arXiv:

http://arxiv.org/abs/1409.0510
 
I would like to know the validity of the following criticism of one of Zeilinger's latest papers https://doi.org/10.48550/arXiv.2507.07756 "violation of bell inequality with unentangled photons" The review is by Francis Villatoro, in Spanish, https://francis.naukas.com/2025/07/26/sin-entrelazamiento-no-se-pueden-incumplir-las-desigualdades-de-bell/ I will translate and summarize the criticism as follows: -It is true that a Bell inequality is violated, but not a CHSH inequality. The...
I understand that the world of interpretations of quantum mechanics is very complex, as experimental data hasn't completely falsified the main deterministic interpretations (such as Everett), vs non-deterministc ones, however, I read in online sources that Objective Collapse theories are being increasingly challenged. Does this mean that deterministic interpretations are more likely to be true? I always understood that the "collapse" or "measurement problem" was how we phrased the fact that...
This is not, strictly speaking, a discussion of interpretations per se. We often see discussions based on QM as it was understood during the early days and the famous Einstein-Bohr debates. The problem with this is that things in QM have advanced tremendously since then, and the 'weirdness' that puzzles those attempting to understand QM has changed. I recently came across a synopsis of these advances, allowing those interested in interpretational issues to understand the modern view...

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