tsang
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I got one example on my notes about PID and maximal ideal. I feel it is a strange example as it doesn't make sense to me, and there are no explanations. It says:
For a prime p\in\mathbb{N}, denote by \mathbb{Z}_{(p)} the subring of \mathbb{Q} given by
\mathbb{Z}_{(p)}={\frac{m}{n} \in\mathbb{Q}|p does not divide n}.
Then \mathbb{Z}_{(p)} is a PID, and it has exactly one maximal ideal.
I can't see the reason of this example at all, and I'm not able to imagine what are the ideals like in Z_(p), can anyone please explain to me why it is a PID and only has one maximal ideal? Thanks a lot.
For a prime p\in\mathbb{N}, denote by \mathbb{Z}_{(p)} the subring of \mathbb{Q} given by
\mathbb{Z}_{(p)}={\frac{m}{n} \in\mathbb{Q}|p does not divide n}.
Then \mathbb{Z}_{(p)} is a PID, and it has exactly one maximal ideal.
I can't see the reason of this example at all, and I'm not able to imagine what are the ideals like in Z_(p), can anyone please explain to me why it is a PID and only has one maximal ideal? Thanks a lot.