Existence of Linear Operators with Matching Subspaces in Vector Spaces

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the existence of linear operators in vector spaces, specifically focusing on subspaces and their kernels. The original poster seeks to establish that for every subspace B of a vector space C, there exists at least one linear operator L such that the kernel of L equals B, and at least one operator L' such that the image of L' equals B.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss defining linear operators based on their action on basis vectors of the subspace and the larger vector space. There are attempts to clarify the relationship between the kernel of the operator and the subspace, as well as the implications of mapping elements to zero.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, questioning assumptions about the definitions of kernels and bases. Some have offered guidance on how to define the operators, while others are exploring the implications of their definitions and the relationships between elements of B and C.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing discussion about the definitions of basis and kernel, with some participants noting the importance of linear independence and spanning sets. The conversation reflects a mix of correct reasoning and misunderstandings that are being addressed collaboratively.

  • #31
I'm confused as to how to think about this. I need a vi where L'(C)=B. So I would need a basis for C that would map an element to B?
 
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  • #32
LosTacos said:
I'm confused as to how to think about this. I need a vi where L'(C)=B. So I would need a basis for C that would map an element to B?

No! You just need to define a mapping that takes all of the vi's into B. Use the same basis as before. Some of those vi's are in B, aren't they? Just define f(vi) for each i.
 
  • #33
Okay so then {v1, v2, ... , vk} is a basis for B, and {v1, v2, ... , vk, vk+1, vn} is a basis for C.
Could I use the map where for all i>k L(vi) = L(v1) which is in B.
 
  • #34
LosTacos said:
Okay so then {v1, v2, ... , vk} is a basis for B, and {v1, v2, ... , vk, vk+1, vn} is a basis for C.
Could I use the map where for all i>k L(vi) = L(v1) which is in B.

Yes, you could. Now what to do you propose for i<=k?
 
  • #35
L(v1) = 1
L(v2) = 2
...
For all i<=k: L(vi) = i
 
  • #36
LosTacos said:
L(v1) = 1
L(v2) = 2
...
For all i<=k: L(vi) = i

I think you mean the right thing. But you certainly aren't saying the right thing. 1 and 2 aren't vectors, are they?
 
  • #37
Sorry. It would be L(v1) = v1, L(v2) = v2,... L(vi)=vi
 
  • #38
LosTacos said:
Sorry. It would be L(v1) = v1, L(v2) = v2,... L(vi)=vi

Ok, so L(vi)=vi for i<=k and L(vi)=v1 for i>k? Does that work? Is L(C)=B? Explain why? For extra points tell me some other ways you could have defined L such that L(C)=B.
 
  • #39
Yes. Since {v1, v2, ... , vk} is a basis for B, and {v1, v2, ... , vk, vk+1, vn} is a basis for C,
for i<=k, L(vi) = vi which is apart of both Basis of B and Basis of C because v1 < vi < vk. Then, for any i > k, L(vi) = L(v1) = v1 which is apart of Basis B and Basis C.
 
  • #40
I could of defined L(C)=B such that if i>k, then L(vi) = ker(L) = B = 0
 
  • #41
LosTacos said:
I could of defined L(C)=B such that if i>k, then L(vi) = ker(L) = B = 0

Yes, I THINK you've essentially got it, but you don't really express yourself very well, so I'm guessing. The point is that both ways you've defined L, L(C)=span(v1,v2,...,vk). Which defines B. There are many other ways to define L as well, agree?
 

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