Expectation value, harmonic oscillator

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the expectation values of the position operator \( \hat{x} \) and momentum operator \( \hat{p} \) for the nth energy eigenstate in a one-dimensional harmonic oscillator. Participants utilize ladder operators \( a_{\pm} \) defined as \( a_{\pm}=\tfrac{1}{\sqrt{2\hbar m\omega}}(\mp i\hat{p}+m\omega \hat{x}) \) to derive the expression for \( \langle \hat{x} \hat{p} \rangle \), resulting in \( \langle \hat{x} \hat{p} \rangle = \frac{i\hbar}{2} \). The discussion highlights the non-Hermitian nature of the operator \( \hat{x} \hat{p} \) and clarifies the derivation process, emphasizing the importance of using the correct ladder operator expressions.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics, specifically the harmonic oscillator model.
  • Familiarity with ladder operators in quantum mechanics.
  • Knowledge of expectation values in quantum mechanics.
  • Proficiency in manipulating complex numbers and operators.
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  • Study the derivation of expectation values in quantum mechanics.
  • Learn about the properties of Hermitian and non-Hermitian operators.
  • Explore the role of ladder operators in quantum harmonic oscillators.
  • Investigate the implications of complex expectation values in quantum systems.
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Students and professionals in quantum mechanics, physicists working with harmonic oscillators, and anyone interested in the mathematical foundations of quantum theory.

broegger
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Hi,

I have to find the expectation values of xp and px for nth energy eigenstate in the 1-d harmonic oscillator. If I know <xp> I can immediately find <px>since [x,p]=ih. I use the ladder operators a_{\pm}=\tfrac1{\sqrt{2\hslash m\omega}}(\mp ip+m\omega x) to find <xp>, but I get a complex value, <xp>=ih/2. It doesn't seem right in the context of the rest of the exercise...
 
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Why not...?Why should it be real...?:wink:

Daniel.
 
What's your expression for xp in terms of the ladder operators?
 
Well, xp is not hermitian, I see your point, dexter. My expression for xp is i\hslash/2({a_+}^2 + {a_-}^2 + 1).
 
Could I be so bold as to ask how you got that expression for xp ?
 
I got it. I convert p to ladder operators using this formula:

\hat a_\pm=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2mh\omega}}(m\omega \hat x \mp i\hat p)

Just isolate p. Then we use this formula for x in ladder operators:

\hat{x}=\sqrt{\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega}}(\hat a_++\hat a_-)

Then we simply multiply x and p.

But what i get is a little bit different than above:

\hat x \hat p=\frac{i\hbar}{2}(\hat a_+^2-\nf\hat a_-^2+1)

(note the - in the last formula)

But the final result is the same
&lt;\hat x \hat p&gt; = \frac{i\hbar}{2}
 

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