solas99 said:
the expression for En should be just E then.
The first E
n seems fine ... it's just that the rest of the line makes no sense mathematically - you have unequal things being equal: a contradiction! You need to get rid of at least one of those equals signs.
Also the E
2-E
1 bits would just give the transition energy between states 1 and 2. How is this related to the expectation value?
so now i can calculate a value of E for a 1nm wide finite well in superposition of the 1st two states where (n22-n12)..
Just to be clear - you are told that the particle is in the superposition of the 1st two energy eigenstates?
nope, not given the superposition
? then why do the calculation for the first two eigenstates then?
i tried to calculate the superposition energy of 1st two states then add that to E in airy function
... why? How does that get you the expectation value?
does this value [8V0] come into the airy function to help resolve the energy expectation value of linear superposition of the states given.(0.66 and 2.6ε)
The barrier height would certainly affect the Airy function - it goes into the V(z) part of the Schodinger equation.
I think one of us is horribly confused.
You have a state ψ(z) prepared in a superposition of energy eigenstates thus \psi=c_a\psi_a + c_b\psi_b with eigenvalues E
a=0.66ε and E
b=2.6ε
If you know the Schodinger equation solutions for the energy eigenstates for your shape well then you should be able to just put these E values into get the wave-functions. But I am unclear about the exact shape of the potential ... please write out the potential function for me: V(z)= ... and I don't see what V
0 and ε are supposed to be.
The expectation value of energy is:\langle H \rangle = \int_0^\infty \psi^\star H \psi dzIt gives the average energy of the particle in the state ψ ... if the two eigenstates were equally likely then this is just \bar{E}=\frac{1}{2}(E_a+E_b), but that may not be the case, which is why the probability amplitudes are needed.