Expectation value of momentum operator

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The discussion centers on calculating the expectation value of the momentum operator using a real-valued wavefunction constructed from momentum eigenstates. The proposed wavefunction is psi(x) = [exp(ikx) + exp(-ikx)]/sqrt(2), but the integral for the expectation value diverges. Participants suggest that since the wavefunction has equal and opposite probabilities, the expectation value <p> should be zero, but they seek a method to demonstrate this mathematically. Suggestions for suitable wavefunctions to simplify calculations include using functions like sin(x) or e^(-x^2). Ultimately, the conversation emphasizes the need for a normalized wavefunction to accurately compute the expectation value.
tanaygupta2000
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Homework Statement
Find the expectation value of momentum operator in a normalized real-valued wavefunction
Relevant Equations
momentum eigenstates = exp(ikx)
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I know that the eigenstates of momentum operator are given by exp(ikx)
To construct a real-valued and normalized wavefunction out of these eigenstates,
I have,
psi(x) = [exp(ikx) + exp(-ikx)]/ sqrt(2)

But my trouble is, how do I find the expectation value of momentum operator <p> using this psi(x)?
On applying momentum operator, my integral is divergent.
I think that since there are equal probabilities in psi, <p> will be 0.
But how do I show it by calculations?
Please help!
 
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&lt;p&gt;=\int \psi^*(x) \frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{d}{dx} \psi(x) dx
is usual way of momentum calculation. Say ##\psi(x)## is real function ?
 
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tanaygupta2000 said:
Homework Statement:: Find the expectation value of momentum operator in a normalized real-valued wavefunction
Relevant Equations:: momentum eigenstates = exp(ikx)

View attachment 278349

I know that the eigenstates of momentum operator are given by exp(ikx)
To construct a real-valued and normalized wavefunction out of these eigenstates,
I have,
psi(x) = [exp(ikx) + exp(-ikx)]/ sqrt(2)

But my trouble is, how do I find the expectation value of momentum operator <p> using this psi(x)?
On applying momentum operator, my integral is divergent.
I think that since there are equal probabilities in psi, <p> will be 0.
But how do I show it by calculations?
Please help!
The problem says nothing about using the momentum eigenstates - which cannot be normalized in any case.
 
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You are asked to calculate the integral in post #2:

anuttarasammyak said:
&lt;p&gt;=\int \psi^*(x) \frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{d}{dx} \psi(x) dx
is usual way of momentum calculation. Say ##\psi(x)## is real function ?

This has nothing to do with momentum eigenfunctions.
 
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@tanaygupta If you are keen on momentum eigenfunction, you may expand the state by momentum eigenfunciton, say ##\phi(p)## instead of expansion of the state by coordinate eigenfunction ##\psi(x)##.

Momentum expectation value is
&lt;p&gt;=\int \phi^*(p) p \phi(p) dp
The relation of ##\phi(p)## and ##\psi(x)## is
\phi(p)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int e^{-ipx/\hbar}\psi(x) dx
\psi(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int e^{ipx/\hbar}\phi(p) dp

You see the last equation tells ##\phi(p)## is a kind of amplitude for momentum eigenfunction component, i.e. ## e^{ipx/\hbar}##, of the state.

As ##\psi(x)## is real you observe
\phi^*(p)=\phi(-p)
&lt;p&gt;=\int \phi(-p) p \phi(p) dp

How do you estimate this integral ?
 
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anuttarasammyak said:
&lt;p&gt;=\int \psi^*(x) \frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{d}{dx} \psi(x) dx
is usual way of momentum calculation. Say ##\psi(x)## is real function ?
I think it will be easier to go with this one.
 
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tanaygupta2000 said:
I think it will be easier to go with this one.
What should I assume psi(x) to be?
 
  • #10
I just looked another question which was like this so I did like that.
 

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  • #11
tanaygupta2000 said:
What should I assume psi(x) to be?
Any real-valued function!
 
  • #12
PeroK said:
Any real-valued function!
Can I simply take sqrt(2/L) sin(n pi x/L)?
What should I get the value for <p>?
 
  • #13
By "any" we mean "arbitrary". You have to calculate the integral for any function. You can of course try a specific function to see what you get. But, the general solution is fairly easy.
 
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  • #14
PeroK said:
By "any" we mean "arbitrary". You have to calculate the integral for any function. You can of course try a specific function to see what you get. But, the general solution is fairly easy.
Can I simply take sin(x), cos(x) etc. ?
Please suggest me some easy function for calculating <p>.
 
  • #15
tanaygupta2000 said:
Can I simply take sin(x), cos(x) etc. ?
Please suggest me some easy function for calculating <p>.
Try ##\psi(x) = e^{-x^2}## and don't worry about the normalisation constant.
 
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