talolard said:
Homework Statement
Hello,
Please pardon me if my terms are off, I'm studying in hebrew and might lacka few of the english words.
Anyway this isn't homewokr but just curiosity.
We learned in class that if V is a vector space and U is a subspace of V then U\oplus U^{\bot}=V
But then it seems to me that this implies that every vector that is in V but not in U is orthogonal to every vector in U. i.e.
No, that's not what it is saying. U\oplus U^{\bot} is NOT a union of sets. In particular, it does NOT mean that every vector in V is in one or the other of those. It means, rather, that every vector in V is a unique sum of a vector in U and a vector in U^{\perp}.
Suppose V is the xy-plane and U is the x-axis. Then U^{\perp} is the y- axis. Every vector in V, a\vec{i}+ b\vec{j} is a unique sum of a vector in U and a vector in V- here, just a\vec{i} and b\vec{j}, respectively.
A slightly harder example: With V as before, let U= {(x,y)|y= x}, the line y= x. Then U^{\perp} is {(x,y)| y= -x}. Given a vector p\vec{i}+ q\vec{j} how would we write it as a sum of vectors in U and U^{\perp}? Well, any vector in U is of the form a\vec{i}+ a\vec{j} for some number a and every vector in U^{\perp} is of the form b\vec{i}- b\vec{j} for some number b so we would need to find a and b such that (a\vec{i}+ a\vec{j})+ (b\vec{i}- b\vec{j}= p\vec{i}+ q\vec{j}.
That is, (a+ b)\vec{i}+ (a- b)\vec{j}= p\vec{i}+ q\vec{j} so we must have a+ b= p and a- b= q. Adding the two equations, 2a= p+ q so a= (p+ q)/2. Subtracting the two equations, 2b= p- q so b= (p- q)/2.
That is, any vector in R
2 can be written, in a unique way, as the sum of a vector in U and a vector in U^{\perp}.
This just strikes me as odd and counterintuitive. Is it correct or am I missing something.
Thanks
Tal
The Attempt at a Solution