Elwin.Martin
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So my text (Ryder 2nd edition, page 252) is defining the "pure gauge-field Lagrangian" as:
G_{\mu \nu}\equiv \partial_{\mu}A_{\nu} - \partial_{\nu}A_{\mu}-ig\left[ A_{\mu},A_{\nu}\right]
\mathcal{L} = -\frac{1}{4}Tr G_{\mu \nu} G^{\mu \nu}
Dumb question:
Isn't G_{\mu \nu} G^{\mu \nu} being summed over, and hence, scalar?
How is trace even defined on a scalar quantity? Is the trace only applying to the first G and is a scalar factor for the second?
I feel like I'm missing something obvious here.
Thanks for any and all advice.
G_{\mu \nu}\equiv \partial_{\mu}A_{\nu} - \partial_{\nu}A_{\mu}-ig\left[ A_{\mu},A_{\nu}\right]
\mathcal{L} = -\frac{1}{4}Tr G_{\mu \nu} G^{\mu \nu}
Dumb question:
Isn't G_{\mu \nu} G^{\mu \nu} being summed over, and hence, scalar?
How is trace even defined on a scalar quantity? Is the trace only applying to the first G and is a scalar factor for the second?
I feel like I'm missing something obvious here.
Thanks for any and all advice.