tylerc1991
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In the course of proving that \sqrt{3} is irrational, I had another question pop up. To prove that \sqrt{3} is irrational, I first assumed 2 things: \sqrt{3} is rational, and the rational form of \sqrt{3} is in it's lowest form. I then broke the proof up into cases and showed that none of these cases could occur.
My question boils down to: did I actually show that \sqrt{3} is irrational?
From a purely logical standpoint, let's say that the 2 assumptions I made were named A and B. I successfully showed that A \wedge B is false. However, this doesn't mean that BOTH A and B are false. More specifically, A could be true and B could be false, and I would still arrive at A \wedge B being false.
On the other hand, the second assumption that was made (the rational form of \sqrt{3} is in it's lowest form) shouldn't (doesn't?) change the problem.
Could someone give me solace and explain this little technicality I have? Thank you very much!
My question boils down to: did I actually show that \sqrt{3} is irrational?
From a purely logical standpoint, let's say that the 2 assumptions I made were named A and B. I successfully showed that A \wedge B is false. However, this doesn't mean that BOTH A and B are false. More specifically, A could be true and B could be false, and I would still arrive at A \wedge B being false.
On the other hand, the second assumption that was made (the rational form of \sqrt{3} is in it's lowest form) shouldn't (doesn't?) change the problem.
Could someone give me solace and explain this little technicality I have? Thank you very much!