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Basically in Faraday's law, a change of flux over time induces an EMF. I was wondering why is it the enclosed magnetic flux and NOT the magnetic flux through the conductor that we consider.

More specifically, I understand that the flux through a rectangular surface would be B.A. However when looking at a rectangular coil under the under the influence of a uniform magnetic field, despite the fact that the rectangular coil is 'empty' in the middle, we still consider the entire area of the rectangular when calculating the flux. Intuitively, I would only consider the area the flux lines are touching, which is this case is the area of the wire. Below is just a visual aid of the image in my head of the rectangular coil.

___________

| 'Emptiness' |_____

| 'Emptiness' ______ Rest of circuit

| 'Emptiness' |

-------------

I just cannot understand how the field lines within the area of the rectangular would interact with the wire. I do understand though that the field lines touching the coil would influence the wire. Also, since the field lines in accordance to faraday's law inside the rectangular coil cause an EMF, what about if there was field lines outside the coil area, shouldn't that influence the wire as well?

Perhaps this might help (or maybe not), the equation F = Idl x B behaves as I would intuitively expect; we only consider the field lines that intersect/go through the conductor/wire. Although, if the wire was very thick, then shouldn't we also consider its area so F = IdA x B or along those lines? I was attempting to understand why F = Idl x B uses only the intersected field lines while Faraday's law doesn't.

Any assistance would be greatly appreciated =)

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# Faraday's Law of Induction; Why is it the *enclosed* magnetic flux?

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