The Fermi Level is the energy level of the valence electrons at 0 K. it is also the upper limit of the valence band. if the Fermi level is above the lower end of the conduction band (like metals), the valence electrons have enough energy to flow, and the material is thus a good conductor. If the Fermi level is separted from the lower end of the conduction band by a large gap, then the electrons do not have enough energy to escape their bonds (insulators). However, if this band gap is small (semi conductors), the electrons could be externally excited (eg., thermally, electric field) in order to jump into the conduction band and flow.
hope this helps
Ali
#3
solas99
69
1
:) thanks, nice and easy :P
#4
solas99
69
1
when calculating occupancy of a semiconductor material 50meV from conduction band at temperature T.
my question is: do i start by using the fermi dirac distrubution function? or is there something I am missing?
#5
ashwini017
1
0
hi,
i read somewhere that fermi level is situated at the middle of energy band gap for intrinsic semiconductors,above the center for n-type semiconductors and below the center for p-type semiconductors.i,however,am not able to understand the reason behind it.please help.
I am new to XPS Data analysis, and I have a .sle file that I got out of XPS Machine Software, and I am using CasaXPS to analyse the data. This software takes only .vms files. I want to convert the .sle to a .vms file for analysis. How or where can I do this? Any help on this will be deeply appreciated.
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...