Find the limit of sequence (trig term)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the limits of two sequences involving trigonometric functions and factorials. The first sequence is An = \(\frac{\sqrt{n} \sin(n! e^{n})}{n+1}\), and the second is An = \(4n^{3} \sin\frac{1}{n^{3}}\). Participants are exploring the behavior of these sequences as n approaches infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss bounding the sine function and applying limits to the sequences. There is an exploration of why different methods seem applicable to the first sequence compared to the second. Some participants question the validity of using similar approaches for both sequences.

Discussion Status

There is ongoing exploration of the reasoning behind the differing outcomes for the two sequences. Some participants have suggested using L'Hôpital's Rule for the second sequence, while others are clarifying the implications of bounding sequences and the conditions under which limits can be evaluated.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the first sequence converges to zero, while the second sequence presents an indeterminate form, leading to confusion about the application of limit techniques. There is also mention of variable substitution as a method to analyze the limits more effectively.

izen
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Homework Statement



find the limit of this sequence

1) An = [itex]\frac{\sqrt{n} sin (n! e^{n})}{n+1}[/itex]

2) An = [itex]4n^{3} sin\frac{1}{n^{3}}[/itex]

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


(1)
|sin n! e^n)| ≤1

|An| ≤ [itex]\frac{ \sqrt{n} }{n+1}[/itex]

|An| ≤ [itex]\frac{ \sqrt{n}/n }{n/n+1/n}[/itex] = 0

lim[itex]_{n\rightarrow \infty}[/itex] An = 0 √

==========================

(2)

[itex]|sin \frac{1}{n^{3}}|[/itex] ≤ 1
An ≤ [itex]4 n^{3}[/itex]
lim[itex]_{n\rightarrow \infty}[/itex] An = ∞ X

The second question my answer is wrong
I should get 4. and the answer shows that I have to use L' Hospital's
My question is why I cannot apply the method from the first question to the second question.
It just confused me I am not sure but my solution on the first question anyway but I got the right answer please comment on that too please !

thank you for your help
 
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izen said:

Homework Statement



find the limit of this sequence

1) An = [itex]\frac{\sqrt{n} sin (n! e^{n})}{n+1}[/itex]

2) An = [itex]4n^{3} sin\frac{1}{n^{3}}[/itex]

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution


(1)
|sin n! e^n)| ≤1

|An| ≤ [itex]\frac{ \sqrt{n} }{n+1}[/itex]

|An| ≤ [itex]\frac{ \sqrt{n}/n }{n/n+1/n}[/itex] = 0

lim[itex]_{n\rightarrow \infty}[/itex] An = 0 √

==========================

(2)

[itex]|sin \frac{1}{n^{3}}|[/itex] ≤ 1
An ≤ [itex]4 n^{3}[/itex]
lim[itex]_{n\rightarrow \infty}[/itex] An = ∞ X

The second question my answer is wrong
I should get 4. and the answer shows that I have to use L' Hospital's
My question is why I cannot apply the method from the first question to the second question.
It just confused me I am not sure but my solution on the first question anyway but I got the right answer please comment on that too please !

thank you for your help
As n→∞, 1/n3 → 0 so sin(1/n3) → 0.

So that, 4n3 sin(1/n3) is indeterminate of the form ∞∙0 .

Even if have a sequence such as [itex]\displaystyle 4n^3\sin(n)[/itex] your method will give an incorrect result because sin(n) oscillates from near -1 to near +1 .
 
Last edited:
For the second question, replace n with 1/h where h->0. Then use L'Hopital's Rule.
 
SammyS said:
As n→∞, 1/n2 → 0 so sin(1/n2) → 0.

So that, 4n3 sin(1/n2) is indeterminate of the form ∞∙0 .

Even if have a sequence such as [itex]\displaystyle 4n^3\sin(n)[/itex] your method will give an incorrect result because sin(n) oscillates from near -1 to near +1 .

What I don't understand is why it works on the first question but the second question. still don't get it. thanks for the comments
 
Pranav-Arora said:
For the second question, replace n with 1/h where h->0. Then use L'Hopital's Rule.

why we can set h->0 I have seen that method but I don't get it why n-> infinity can change to h->0. sorry if I asked such a stupid question. thanks for the comments
 
SammyS said:
As n→∞, 1/n2 → 0 so sin(1/n2) → 0.
So that, 4n3 sin(1/n2) is indeterminate of the form ∞∙0 .
The question has 1/n3, not 1/n2.
izen, lim n→∞ n3 sin(1/n3) must be the same as lim n→∞ n sin(1/n), right? Does that help?
izen said:
why we can set h->0 I have seen that method but I don't get it why n-> infinity can change to h->0.
It's just a change of variable. Define h = 1/n, then n sin(1/n) = sin(h)/h, and the limit of n sin(1/n) as n→∞ must be the same as lim sin(h)/h as h→0. Having converted it to a problem with a finite limit point you can use l'Hopital's rule.
 
I need time to think about your say. Thank you so much haruspex :)
 
haruspex said:
It's just a change of variable. Define h = 1/n, then n sin(1/n) = sin(h)/h, and the limit of n sin(1/n) as n→∞ must be the same as lim sin(h)/h as h→0. Having converted it to a problem with a finite limit point you can use l'Hopital's rule.

so it means lim n→∞ 1/n = 0 so if we define h=1/n. the limit of 'h' needs to be equal to 1/n by setting lim h→0 h = 0. Am i understand it right ?
 
izen said:
What I don't understand is why it works on the first question but the second question. still don't get it. thanks for the comments
Consider a sequence, {An}, such that the each individual term is given by,
An = Bn∙Cn
where {Bn} is bounded above and below, but does not converge.

If {Cn} converges to zero, then so does {An}.

Otherwise, {An} does not converge -- no matter whether {Cn} converges or not.
Your first problem is a case of the above.Your second problem does not nearly fit the above requirements.

Yes, the sequence {sin(1/n3)} is bounded, but more than that, this sequence converges to zero.* The sequence {4n3} → +∞ as n → ∞ . So, the term by term product of these sequences may or may not converge based upon other totally different criteria.
* The sequence {1/n3} converges to zero, and sin(0) = 0 .
 
Last edited:
  • #10
In your first question you show that your sequence lies beetween two sequence that both goes to zero 0≤An≤0 this implies An → 0
It's important that you show that it lies BEETWEEN two sequences.

In your secondo question you show that your question is less than infinity, that does not make it go to infinity though. An could go 2, which is less than infinity, or -10 which is less than infinity, or -∞ which is less than infinity.
 
  • #11
izen said:
so it means lim n→∞ 1/n = 0 so if we define h=1/n. the limit of 'h' needs to be equal to 1/n by setting lim h→0 h = 0. Am i understand it right ?

Yes.
 
  • #12
i get it now
thank you u guys all
 

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