Finding Exact and WKB Wavefunction for V(x) in E=10 Situation

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The discussion focuses on finding the exact and WKB wavefunctions for a particle in a potential defined by V(x) = βx for x ≥ 0 and V(x) = 0 for x < 0, with E = 10. Participants clarify the form of the Schrödinger equation and the WKB approximation, noting that the equation resembles a variant of the Airy differential equation. There is debate over the correct interpretation of terms in the equations, particularly regarding the signs of β and E. The importance of accurately defining k in the context of the WKB method is emphasized, with references to external resources for further reading. The conversation highlights the complexities involved in applying the WKB approximation to this potential scenario.
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Consider the potential
V(x) = \beta x for x \geq\ 0
V(x) = 0 for x < 0.

Find the exact and WKB wavefunction for the situation where a particle has
E = 10 in units where \beta = \hbar = m = 1.

Any suggestions guys?
James
 
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For x > 0 you are looking for approximate solutions of an equation having this form:

\frac {d^2 y}{dx^2} + k^2\left(1-\frac {\beta x}{E_0}\right) y = 0

which will be of the form

e^{\pm i \frac {2}{3} k\left(1-\frac {\beta x}{E_0}\right)^{\frac {3}{2}}

which is valid for x not close to E_0 / \beta.
 
Ok, what are you calling k because here is what I would think the Shrodinger equation is
<br /> \frac {d^2 y}{dx^2} + \beta x y = E_0 y<br />

And is that the WKB solution?
 
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Yes, I abbreviated k and just gave the form of the equation. I think your signs are reversed on the \beta and E_0 terms.

Your equation is actually a variant of the Airy differential equation but the point of your problem is to use the WKB approximation which essentially says that the solution of equations like

\frac {d^2 y}{dx^2} + k^2(x) y = 0

are approximately of the form

e^{\pm i \int^x k(x&#039;) dx&#039;}[/itex]<br /> <br /> I&#039;m being a little sloppy here but you can read more here http://www.du.edu/~jcalvert/phys/wkb.htm (and in lots of other places including your textbook!)
 
I thought that this is the form of the SE...\frac {d^2 y}{dx^2} + V(x) y = E y

So subbing in \beta x y for the potential, I think the signs are rigt.
I just don' t see how to get
\frac {d^2 y}{dx^2} + k^2\left(1-\frac {\beta x}{E_0}\right) y = 0 :confused:

Also what is the k that goes in your integral? Shouldn 't it be
\beta x y - E ?
 
No, you have the signs reversed on the E and V terms in the Schrodinger equation. I used k^2 = \frac {2m}{\hbar^2}(E - V)
 
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