Finding Inverse Hyperbolic secant in terms of logarithms ?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the inverse hyperbolic secant function in terms of logarithms, specifically addressing the ambiguity in choosing between two potential solutions. Additionally, there is an inquiry into proving that the hyperbolic cosecant function is one-to-one without relying on graphical representation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the two solutions for the inverse hyperbolic secant function and question which one to select. There is also a discussion on proving the one-to-one nature of the hyperbolic cosecant function based on its relationship with the hyperbolic sine function.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the nature of the inverse function and the restrictions necessary for it to be valid. There is an ongoing exploration of the definitions and properties of the functions involved, with attempts to clarify the conditions under which the inverse can be determined.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the hyperbolic secant function is not one-to-one over all real numbers, which leads to the necessity of domain restrictions for the inverse to exist. The discussion also highlights the importance of understanding the implications of these restrictions on the solutions obtained.

mahmoud2011
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The Problem is when I Compute the Inverse I have to solutions

[itex]sech^{-1}(x) = ln(\frac{1\pm \sqrt{1-x^{2}}}{x}) : 0<x\leq 1[/itex]

And this not function which of them I will choose

Another Question is how can I prove without the graph that csch (x) is one - to -one

thanks
 
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For the second question I proved it depending on the definition of one to one function and csch(x) ,where since sinh(x) is one to one ,the whenever sinh(c)=sinh(d) , c=d
Then it follows that whenever 1/sinh(c) = 1/sinh(d) , c=d
And thus the result follows and that's what I did .
 
For the first question , I tried to check my solution I tried to check the solution directly from the definition of inverse function,

Let [itex]h(x) = ln(\frac{1-\sqrt{1-x^2}}{x}) : 0<x\leq 1[/itex]

[itex]g(x)=ln (\frac{1+ \sqrt{1-x^2}}{x}) : 0<x\leq 1[/itex]

[itex]f(x) = sech(x) : x\geq 0[/itex]

then we have after some Algebra ,
[itex](f o h)(x) = x : 0<x\leq 1[/itex]
Whereas [itex](h o f)(x) = -x : x\leq0[/itex]
And Thus h is not the inverse of f , Checking g we will see that it do its job it is the inverse where

[itex](f o g)(x) = x : 0<x\leq 1[/itex]
Whereas [itex](g o f)(x) = x : x\leq0[/itex]
 
Exactly what does the question say? The reason you are getting "[itex]\pm[/itex]" is because sech is NOT a one-to-one function and so does NOT HAVE an inverse over all real numbers. You can, of course, restrict the domain so that it does have an inverse. How the domain is restricted will determine the sign.
 
I have restricted the domain such that x is greater than or equal zero and I also had Both signs So I Checked the solutions from definition of Inverse function And Choosed the positive sign As I have written above.
 

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