First principles/induction proof

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The discussion revolves around proving the formula for the sum of the first n natural numbers, 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n = n(n+1)/2, using first principles and induction. The original poster expresses confusion about how to start the proof and seeks guidance. Participants suggest considering the sum in reverse order and adding the two representations to derive insights. They emphasize the need for an inductive approach, starting with a base case and then proving the formula for n+1 based on the assumption for n. The conversation highlights the importance of both methods in understanding the proof's foundation.
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1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n = n(n+1)/2

I need to prove this by first principles and by induction.

I am extraordinarily stuck with this and don't really know where to begin, I've tried writing the LHS in terms of n then trying to simplify but am pretty much stuck. Any suggestions of how to begin for either method would be very much appreciated!
 
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This is an arithmetic progression with d=1. To start off, imagine the sum:
n + n-1 + n-2 + ... + 1 , which is the same as the above, but written in the reverse order. What happens if you add one sum to the other?
 
Sorry for my lack of understanding but what do you mean by this..

What happens if you add one sum to the other?

do you mean what happens when you add n + (n-1) + (n-2) and so on? Because if that's what you mean i have no idea >.<
 
He means what happens when you sum

1 + 2 + 3 + ... n-2 + n-1 + n
n + n-1 + n-2 + ... + 3 + 2 + 1
 
scast said:
He means what happens when you sum

1 + 2 + 3 + ... n-2 + n-1 + n
n + n-1 + n-2 + ... + 3 + 2 + 1

This is all fine, but the OP needs an inductive proof. Begin by showing the formula is true for say n=1. Let's call P(n)=n(n+1)/2. Now assume 1+...+n=P(n). You want to prove 1+...+(n+1)=P(n+1). Take the difference of the two equations. (n+1)=P(n+1)-P(n). Can you prove that? That's the inductive step.
 
No, the OP said he needed and proof "from first principles" and an inductive proof. forty and scast were trying to lead him to the first.
 
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
Since ##px^9+q## is the factor, then ##x^9=\frac{-q}{p}## will be one of the roots. Let ##f(x)=27x^{18}+bx^9+70##, then: $$27\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)^2+b\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)+70=0$$ $$b=27 \frac{q}{p}+70 \frac{p}{q}$$ $$b=\frac{27q^2+70p^2}{pq}$$ From this expression, it looks like there is no greatest value of ##b## because increasing the value of ##p## and ##q## will also increase the value of ##b##. How to find the greatest value of ##b##? Thanks
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