Force can be expressed as F = P/v where P = power (watts) and v = velocity (metres per second) So what happens when you use a given amount of power to accelerate an object from rest? This would be given by: a = P/(mv) And since v = 0 => a = P/(m*0) This would be division by 0, so is this correct that from rest the acceleration would be infinite? If so, if the acceleration is infinite, it would only be for an infintesimal time period. Would that make the results a little easier to work with? What would be the change in velocity for an object that accelerates with an infinite magnitude for an infintesimal time?