Form factor - spherically symmetric

  • Thread starter Thread starter Max Eilerson
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Form Symmetric
Max Eilerson
Messages
119
Reaction score
1
1) Use the fact that the form factor, F(q), is the Fourier transform of the normalised charge distribution p(r), which in the spherically symmetric case gives
,

F(q) = \int \frac{4\pi\hbar r}{q}p(r)sin(\frac{qr}{\hbar}) dr

to find an expression for F(q) for a simple model of the proton considered as a uniform spherical charge distribution of radius R.

This just means I can use coulomb's law as an expression for p(r). p(r) = \frac{q}{4\pi\epsilon_0R} ?
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes kyawhteinlin
Physics news on Phys.org
Max Eilerson said:
1) Use the fact that the form factor, F(q), is the Fourier transform of the normalised charge distribution p(r), which in the spherically symmetric case gives
,

F(q) = \int \frac{4\pi\hbar r}{q}p(r)sin(\frac{qr}{\hbar}) dr

to find an expression for F(q) for a simple model of the proton considered as a uniform spherical charge distribution of radius R.

This just means I can use coulomb's law as an expression for p(r). p(r) = \frac{q}{4\pi\epsilon_0R} ?
I take this to mean

\rho(r) = \frac{q}{V} = \frac{3q}{4 \pi R^3} for r < R and zero elsewhere.
 
Thanks :). That's is what I was thinking after I posted. Don't see many \epsilon_0 floating around in these things.
 
Last edited:
Max Eilerson said:
This just means I can use coulomb's law as an expression for p(r). p(r) = \frac{q}{4\pi\epsilon_0R} ?
You know it has nothing to do with Coulomb's law.
 
So I evaulated the integral with \rho(r) = \frac{3e}{4 \pi R^3}
q = momentum transfer, e = proton charge.

<br /> \frac{3e\hbar^2(\hbar\sin[\frac{qr}{\hbar}] - qr\cos[\frac{qr}{\hbar}])}{q^3 R^3} + C
Evaluated between R and 0, (F(q) = 0 between R and infinity since p(r) = 0.)


F(q) = \frac{3e\hbar^2(\hbar\sin[\frac{qR}{\hbar}] - qR\cos[\frac{qR}{\hbar}])}{q^3 R^3}

It asks me to show that for \fracq{qR}{\hbar} &lt;&lt; 1 the form factor reduces to 1, I'm not seeing how the charge e can disappear here
 
Last edited:
Max Eilerson said:
So I evaulated the integral with \rho(r) = \frac{3e}{4 \pi R^3}
q = momentum transfer, e = proton charge.

<br /> \frac{3e\hbar^2(\hbar\sin[\frac{qr}{\hbar}] - qr\cos[\frac{qr}{\hbar}])}{q^3 R^3} + C
Evaluated between R and 0, (F(q) = 0 between R and infinity since p(r) = 0.)


F(q) = \frac{3e\hbar^2(\hbar\sin[\frac{qR}{\hbar}] - qR\cos[\frac{qR}{\hbar}])}{q^3 R^3}

It asks me to show that for \fracq{qR}{\hbar} &lt;&lt; 1 the form factor reduces to 1, I'm not seeing how the charge e can disappear here

What does normalised charge distribution mean?

I wonder if that means you should be dividing by a factor something like

\int \rho(r) dr

which would remove the quantity of charge from the calculation
 
OlderDan said:
What does normalised charge distribution mean?

I wonder if that means you should be dividing by a factor something like

\int \rho(r) dr

which would remove the quantity of charge from the calculation


1 = \int \rho(r) d^3r
 
Max Eilerson said:
1 = \int \rho(r) d^3r

I like that even better. I even wrote my integral that way at first and changed it because yours just had the r integral.
 
Back
Top