Fourier Series - Am I Crazy or is My Teacher Tricking Me?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion centers around finding the first three terms of the Fourier series that approximates the function f(θ) = tan(θ) over the interval from θ = -π/2 to π/2. Participants express frustration with the problem, particularly regarding the behavior of the function at the endpoints of the interval.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the definitions of the Fourier coefficients a0, a1, and b1, with some questioning the implications of tan(θ) being an odd function on the coefficients. There is also a focus on the calculations of these coefficients and the expectations surrounding them.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants sharing their calculations and questioning each other's results. Some guidance has been offered regarding the nature of the coefficients based on the properties of the function, but there is no explicit consensus on the correct approach or results yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the potential complications arising from the function being undefined at the endpoints of the interval and discuss the implications of the periodicity of the basis functions used in the Fourier series.

mundane
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I am SO annoyed with this problem. Ready to jump out a window.

Homework Statement



Find the first three terms of the Fourier series that approximates f(θ) = tan(θ) from θ = -π/2 to π/2.

The Attempt at a Solution



So, I know that for an equation on [\frac{-b}{2}, \frac{b}{2}], to define the Fourier series for that equation we use f(x)={a0+a1cosx+a2cos2x+ ... +b1sinx+b2sin2x+ ...}

I only need to find the first three terms, so its just a0+a1cosx+b1sinx.

a0 is defined as \frac{1}{\pi}\int\f(x)dx definite integral from -π/2 to π/2.

a1 is defined as \frac{2}{\pi}\int\f(x)cos(2πx/π)dx definite integral from -π/2 to π/2.

b1 is defined as \frac{2}{\pi}\int\f(x)sin(2πx/π)dx definite integral from -π/2 to π/2.


For a0, my antiderivative was -log(cos(x)). After substitution, a0=0.

For a1, my antiderivative was log(cos(x))-(1/2)cos(2x). After substitution, a1=0.

I have not done b1 yet. Am I being trolled?

Does this ave something to do with the fact that tan(x) is undefined at those two interval points? Am I going in the wrong direction?
 
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Those red f(x) should have no forward slash before them, sorry.
 
Actually, you should have expected those two. tan x is an odd function, so you should expect all of the coefficients on the cosines to be 0 (because those terms give you the even part of the function).
 
I know, but I had to show my work, I knew it was coming but thought maybe I was missing something.

For b1, I got π. So my first three terms are 0+(0)cosx+πsinx?

That's a horrendous approximation... Is that right?
 
Did you remember the constant out front?

The approximation is going to have to be bad, given the shape of sine and tangent. I don't use Fourier series enough to know whether or not I should have expected b1=1.

Are you sure your professor didn't mean for you to compute b1 through b3?
 
Actually, aren't your basis functions supposed to be cos 2x, cos 4x, cos 6x, ... and sin 2x, sin 4x, sin 6x, ...?
 
No, they aren't supposed to be that... does this look alright though?
 
I plugged your integral into wolframalpha, and I got a different number.


I'll say it one more time, since I'm not convinced: are you really, really sure that, e.g., a1 cos x is supposed to be one of the terms, despite the fact it's period does not divide pi and your formula for computing a1 doesn't involve cos x?
 
Hurkyl said:
I plugged your integral into wolframalpha, and I got a different number.


I'll say it one more time, since I'm not convinced: are you really, really sure that, e.g., a1 cos x is supposed to be one of the terms, despite the fact it's period does not divide pi and your formula for computing a1 doesn't involve cos x?

I am looking at my book right now. It says that is the formula. We have done plenty of these in class, and have always used that. What integral did you plug in, and what did you get?I am getting the same numbers.
 
  • #10
I did make a mistake though. b1 should be (2/pi)(pi), so it should be 2, not pi. I forgot to multiply it, I think you may have said that if I understood your last comment.,,?
 

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