Fourier transform and inverse transform

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babyrudin
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Homework Statement



Let f(x) be an integrable complex-valued function on [tex]\mathbb{R}[/tex]. We define the Fourier transform [tex]\phi=\mathcal{F}f[/tex] by
[tex]\[\phi(t)=\int_{\infty}^{\infty} e^{ixt} f(x) dx.\][/tex]

Show that if [tex]f[/tex] is continuous and if [tex]$\phi$[/tex] is integrable, then
[tex]\[f(x)=\frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt.\][/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



So far I have
[tex]\[\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt = \lim_{a \to \infty} \int_{-a}^{a} e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt = \lim_{b \to \infty} \frac{1}{b} \int_0^b da \int_{-a}^a e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt = \lim_{b \to \infty} \frac{1}{b} \int_0^b da \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{2 \sin((y-x)a)}{y-x} f(y) dy.\][/tex]

What to do next?
 
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babyrudin said:

Homework Statement



Let f(x) be an integrable complex-valued function on [tex]\mathbb{R}[/tex]. We define the Fourier transform [tex]\phi=\mathcal{F}f[/tex] by
[tex]\[\phi(t)=\int_{\infty}^{\infty} e^{ixt} f(x) dx.\][/tex]

Show that if [tex]f[/tex] is continuous and if [tex]$\phi$[/tex] is integrable, then
[tex]\[f(x)=\frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt.\][/tex]


The Attempt at a Solution



So far I have
[tex]\[\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt = \lim_{a \to \infty} \int_{-a}^{a} e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt = \lim_{b \to \infty} \frac{1}{b} \int_0^b da \int_{-a}^a e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt = \lim_{b \to \infty} \frac{1}{b} \int_0^b da \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{2 \sin((y-x)a)}{y-x} f(y) dy.\][/tex]

What to do next?
It's not a matter of "what to do next?" but "Why in the world are you doing that?". For one thing, there is no integral from 0 to [itex]\infty[/itex] in what you had before, where are you getting that? And even when you have two integrals, you still only have one variable: dt. You want to show that, for any continuous f (in which case [itex]\phi[/itex] must be integrable)
[tex]\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-ixt} \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{iut}f(u)dudt= f(x)[/tex]
 
What your coarse probably wants from you is to use the following,

[tex]\delta(t - a) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{i \omega (t -a) } d\omega.[/tex]
If you want a full but rather simple proof, for a graduate student with a mathematical focus, of this identity I can send it to you.