Fourier transform of function of a complex variable

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The discussion centers on applying the Fourier transform to analytic functions of one complex variable, specifically functions expressed as u + iv, where u and v satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations. The user proposes that the Fourier transform can be computed by separately transforming u and v, leading to the conclusion that the Fourier transform of the entire analytic function is represented as μ(k1, k2) = μ(k1)δ(k2 - ik1). The use of the Dirac delta function in this context is confirmed as acceptable, provided that the Fourier transform of both the real and imaginary parts is zero.

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thoughtgaze
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Can anyone point me to some material on applying the Fourier transform to the case of an analytic function of one complex variable?

I've tried to generalize it myself, but I want to see if I'm overlooking some important things. I've started by writing the analytic function with

u + iv where u and v satisfy the cauchy riemann equations. I'm tempted to start by saying that to take the Fourier transform of u + iv, simply take the Fourier transform of u and v in the usual way for a function of two variables.

Usually you would have something like u(x,y) → μ(k1, k2) and similarly for v(x,y) → γ(k1, k2)

However, applying the cauchy riemann equations necessarily sets k2 = i k1
and
which implies that the Fourier transform of the full analytic function is simply
μ(k1, k2) =μ(k1)δ(k2 - ik1) = iγ(k1, k2) = iγ(k1)δ(k2 - ik1)

(the δ(k2 - ik1) is just the dirac delta function, which I'm hoping is okay to use even with a complex argument.)

u + iv = ∫dk[2μ(k)]eik(x +iy) = ∫dkdx'dy'2e-i(k(x' - x +i(y'-y))) u(x,y)

μ(k) = ∫dxdy e-ik(x +iy) u(x,y)
 
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Update: I am getting that a Fourier transform is possible for the real part and imaginary part of an analytic function iff it is zero.
 

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