- #1

rugapark

- 22

- 0

[tex]F(u)= \int f(x)e^{-2}^{\pi} ^{i} ^{x} ^{u} dx[/tex]

with limits of +ve and -ve infinity

integrating by parts gives me

[tex]\frac{1}{2} f(x)^{2}e^{-2}^{\pi}^{i}^{x}^{u}-\frac{1}{2} \int f(x)^{2}xe^{-2}^{\pi}^{i}^{x}^{u}dx[/tex]

fisrt off, is the [tex]i[/tex] in the equation an imaginary number ( I am pretty sure it is)

and after integration how do I apply the infinite limits, also is my integration correct?

cheers