- Homework Statement
- Explain why the frictional force stops acting on an object once it's velocity equals 0 (if the frictional force has caused the object to decelerate to rest)
- Relevant Equations
- F ≤ mu R
Initially I tried to explain it via kinetic energy of the object and how the frictional force can only do as much work on the object as the object has kinetic energy but I got confused. Could someone here please explain why if I have an object with a net force due to friction (and no other forces acting horizontally) the object will slow down (I know this due to newtons first and second law), but why does the friction stop acting and not continue to accelerate the object backward?