Petar Mali
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In solid state we often have case
\sum_{\vec{k}}F(\vec{k})=\frac{V}{h^3}\int_{I bz} F(\vec{p})d^3\vec{p}
Integral goes into first Briolen zone.
We can always say that
\frac{V}{h^3}\int_{I bz} F(\vec{p})d^3\vec{p}=4\pi \frac{V}{h^3}\int^{\infty}_{0}F(p)p^2dp
In 2D we will have integral
\frac{S}{h^2}\int_{I bz} F(\vec{p})d^2\vec{p}
where d^2\vec{p}=2\pi pdp
Am I right?
Can you tell me what I will have in 1D? Thanks!
\sum_{\vec{k}}F(\vec{k})=\frac{V}{h^3}\int_{I bz} F(\vec{p})d^3\vec{p}
Integral goes into first Briolen zone.
We can always say that
\frac{V}{h^3}\int_{I bz} F(\vec{p})d^3\vec{p}=4\pi \frac{V}{h^3}\int^{\infty}_{0}F(p)p^2dp
In 2D we will have integral
\frac{S}{h^2}\int_{I bz} F(\vec{p})d^2\vec{p}
where d^2\vec{p}=2\pi pdp
Am I right?
Can you tell me what I will have in 1D? Thanks!