Function notation and shifting functions

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the modeling of a particle's velocity using two different stopwatches. When X starts their stopwatch, the velocity is represented as ##\vec{v}(T)##, while Y starts theirs after a time delay, leading to the question of whether to use ##\vec{v}(t)## or a new function like ##\vec{u}(t)##. It is clarified that if the function arguments are consistently defined, ambiguity is avoided; however, introducing a new function is necessary to accurately represent the second stopwatch's readings. The relationship between the two functions is established as ##\vec{u}(t) = \vec{v}(T)##, ensuring correct behavior when calculating values. This approach allows for clear differentiation between the two time references in the modeling of velocity.
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Suppose two people, X and Y, have two different stopwatches. X starts his/her stopwatch as some particle passes an origin. We can model the velocity of the particle by ##\vec{v}(T)##, where ##T## is the reading on the first stopwatch. After an amount of time ##\Delta t##, Y starts his/her stopwatch (##T = t + \Delta t##). Is it correct to model the velocity of the particle as ##\vec{v}(t)## where ##t## is the reading on the second stopwatch? Or should we change the letter used to represent the function [to ##\vec{u}(t)## for example]?
 
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It depends. If you are always using ##\vec{v}(T)## and ##\vec{v}(t)##, then there is no ambiguity. But if somewhere you are to write something like ##\vec{v}(0)##, then it is not clear which time you are referring to.
 
DrClaude said:
It depends. If you are always using ##\vec{v}(T)## and ##\vec{v}(t)##, then there is no ambiguity. But if somewhere you are to write something like ##\vec{v}(0)##, then it is not clear which time you are referring to.

I think it's because the argument of the function ##\vec{v}## as defined earlier always represents the reading on the first stopwatch. To represent velocity in terms of the reading on the second stopwatch a new function is forced upon us such that ##\vec{u}(t) = \vec{v}(T)## for all ##t##. Is this correct?
 
MohammedRady97 said:
I think it's because the argument of the function ##\vec{v}## as defined earlier always represents the reading on the first stopwatch. To represent velocity in terms of the reading on the second stopwatch a new function is forced upon us such that ##\vec{u}(t) = \vec{v}(T)## for all ##t##. Is this correct?
That equation looks correct. Since ##T = t + \Delta t##, you recover the correct behavior, e.g.,
$$
\vec{u}(0) = \vec{v}(\Delta t)
$$
 
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