Fundamental theorem of Calculus

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perwiradua
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Suppose [itex]a[/itex] is a constant.

If [itex]G(x) = \int_a^x \Big [ f(t) \int_t^x g(u) du \Big ] dt[/itex], what is [itex]G\,'(x)[/itex]?

My attempt,
[tex]G\,'(x) = f(x) \int_x^x g(u) du = 0,[/tex]

and I am sure this is wrong.
 
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perwiradua said:
Suppose [itex]a[/itex] is a constant.

If [itex]G(x) = \int_a^x \Big [ f(t) \int_t^x g(u) du \Big ] dt[/itex], what is [itex]G\,'(x)[/itex]?

My attempt,
[tex]G\,'(x) = f(x) \int_x^x g(u) du = 0,[/tex]

and I am sure this is wrong.

If you had
[tex]G(x) = \int_a^x F(x,t) \, dt[/tex]
in general, what would be your answer for ##G'(x)##? What happens if you specialize this to
[tex]F(x,t) = f(t) \int_t^x g(u) \, du ?[/tex]
 
Thank you for the hint. This is my attempt at the proof which I mimic from that of the single variable case. Please check the rigour in the proof.

Let
\begin{equation*}
G(x) = \int_a^x F(x,t) dt.
\end{equation*}

Now
\begin{align*}
G(x+h) - G(x)
&= \int_a^{x+h} F(x+h,t) dt - \int_a^x F(x,t) dt \\[3mm]
&= \int_a^x F(x+h,t) dt + \int_x^{x+h} F(x+h,t) dt - \int_a^x F(x,t) dt \\[3mm]
&= \int_a^x F(x+h,t) dt - \int_a^x F(x,t) dt + \int_x^{x+h} F(x+h,t) dt \\[3mm]
&= \int_a^x \big [ F(x+h,t) - F(x,t) \big ] \; dt + h F(x+h,c) \\[3mm]
\end{align*}

for some [itex]c \in (x, x+h)[/itex] by the mean value theorem for integrals. Therefore
\begin{equation*}
\frac{G(x+h) - G(x)}{h}
= \int_a^x \Big [ \frac{F(x+h,t) - F(x,t)}{h} \Big ] \; dt + F(x+h,c) \\[3mm]
\end{equation*}
and
\begin{align*}
G'(x) &= \lim_{h \to 0} \int_a^x \Big [ \frac{F(x+h,t) - F(x,t)}{h} \Big ] \; dt
+ \lim_{h \to 0} F(x+h,c) \\[3mm]
&= \int_a^x \frac{\partial}{\partial x} F(x,t) dt + F(x,x)
\end{align*}
since as [itex]h \to 0, x + h \to x[/itex] and [itex]c \to x[/itex].

Now if [itex]F(x,t) = f(t) \int_t^x g(u) du[/itex]. Then

\begin{equation*}
\frac{\partial}{\partial x} F(x,t) = f(t) g(x)
\end{equation*}
and
\begin{equation*}
G'(x) = \int_a^x f(t) g(x) dt + f(t) \int_x^x g(u) du = \int_a^x f(t) g(x) dt.
\end{equation*}
 
perwiradua said:
Thank you for the hint. This is my attempt at the proof which I mimic from that of the single variable case. Please check the rigour in the proof.

Let
\begin{equation*}
G(x) = \int_a^x F(x,t) dt.
\end{equation*}

Now
\begin{align*}
G(x+h) - G(x)
&= \int_a^{x+h} F(x+h,t) dt - \int_a^x F(x,t) dt \\[3mm]
&= \int_a^x F(x+h,t) dt + \int_x^{x+h} F(x+h,t) dt - \int_a^x F(x,t) dt \\[3mm]
&= \int_a^x F(x+h,t) dt - \int_a^x F(x,t) dt + \int_x^{x+h} F(x+h,t) dt \\[3mm]
&= \int_a^x \big [ F(x+h,t) - F(x,t) \big ] \; dt + h F(x+h,c) \\[3mm]
\end{align*}

for some [itex]c \in (x, x+h)[/itex] by the mean value theorem for integrals. Therefore
\begin{equation*}
\frac{G(x+h) - G(x)}{h}
= \int_a^x \Big [ \frac{F(x+h,t) - F(x,t)}{h} \Big ] \; dt + F(x+h,c) \\[3mm]
\end{equation*}
and
\begin{align*}
G'(x) &= \lim_{h \to 0} \int_a^x \Big [ \frac{F(x+h,t) - F(x,t)}{h} \Big ] \; dt
+ \lim_{h \to 0} F(x+h,c) \\[3mm]
&= \int_a^x \frac{\partial}{\partial x} F(x,t) dt + F(x,x)
\end{align*}
since as [itex]h \to 0, x + h \to x[/itex] and [itex]c \to x[/itex].

Now if [itex]F(x,t) = f(t) \int_t^x g(u) du[/itex]. Then

\begin{equation*}
\frac{\partial}{\partial x} F(x,t) = f(t) g(x)
\end{equation*}
and
\begin{equation*}
G'(x) = \int_a^x f(t) g(x) dt + f(t) \int_x^x g(u) du = \int_a^x f(t) g(x) dt.
\end{equation*}

That is correct. There is a general formula for such problems that is often found in good calculus textbooks. Assuming everything is differentiable, we have:
[tex]\frac{d}{dx} \int_{a(x)}^{b(x)} F(x,t) \, dt = b'(x) F(x,b(x)) - a'(x) F(x,a(x))<br /> + \int_{a(x)}^{b(x)} F_x(x,t) \, dt[/tex]

The proof is essentially the same as what you gave.
 
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I would like to go back a bit and look at:

If [itex]\quad {\displaystyle G(x) = \int_a^{\psi(x)} f(t) dt } \quad[/itex] then [itex]\quad G\,' (x) = \psi\,' (x) f(\psi(x)).[/itex]

My attempt at the proof, which again mimic the proof of the basic case:

Proof

\begin{align*}
G(x+h) - G(x)
&= \int_a^{\psi(x+h)} f(t) dt - \int_a^{\psi(x)} f(t) dt \\[3mm]
&= \int_{\psi(x)}^{\psi(x+h)} f(t) dt \\[3mm]
&= \big [\psi(x+h) - \psi(x) \big ] f(\psi(c))
\end{align*}
for some [itex]c \in (x, x+h)[/itex] by the mean value theorem.

Therefore
\begin{equation*}
\frac{G(x+h) - G(x)}{h}
= \frac{\psi(x+h) - \psi(x)}{h} f(\psi(c))
\end{equation*}
and
\begin{align*}
G\,'(x) &= \lim_{h\to 0} \frac{\psi(x+h) - \psi(x)}{h} f(\psi(c)) \\[3mm]
&= \psi'(x) f(\psi(x))
\end{align*}
since as [itex]h \to 0, x + h \to x[/itex] and [itex]c \to x[/itex].




The bit that I am not comfortable with is going from

[itex]{\displaystyle \int_{\psi(x)}^{\psi(x+h)} f(t)} dt \quad[/itex] to [itex]\quad {\displaystyle \big [\psi(x+h) - \psi(x) \big ] f(\psi(c)) }[/itex]

Perhaps more explanation is needed here to make it rigorous?

Thank you sir for stating the general case. I saw that in a textbook a long time ago but I did not jot it down and I have been trying to find it ever since. All the Calculus textbooks that I refer to do not state the result.
 
perwiradua said:
I would like to go back a bit and look at:

If [itex]\quad {\displaystyle G(x) = \int_a^{\psi(x)} f(t) dt } \quad[/itex] then [itex]\quad G\,' (x) = \psi\,' (x) f(\psi(x)).[/itex]

My attempt at the proof, which again mimic the proof of the basic case:

Proof

\begin{align*}
G(x+h) - G(x)
&= \int_a^{\psi(x+h)} f(t) dt - \int_a^{\psi(x)} f(t) dt \\[3mm]
&= \int_{\psi(x)}^{\psi(x+h)} f(t) dt \\[3mm]
&= \big [\psi(x+h) - \psi(x) \big ] f(\psi(c))
\end{align*}
for some [itex]c \in (x, x+h)[/itex] by the mean value theorem.

Therefore
\begin{equation*}
\frac{G(x+h) - G(x)}{h}
= \frac{\psi(x+h) - \psi(x)}{h} f(\psi(c))
\end{equation*}
and
\begin{align*}
G\,'(x) &= \lim_{h\to 0} \frac{\psi(x+h) - \psi(x)}{h} f(\psi(c)) \\[3mm]
&= \psi'(x) f(\psi(x))
\end{align*}
since as [itex]h \to 0, x + h \to x[/itex] and [itex]c \to x[/itex].

The bit that I am not comfortable with is going from

[itex]{\displaystyle \int_{\psi(x)}^{\psi(x+h)} f(t)} dt \quad[/itex] to [itex]\quad {\displaystyle \big [\psi(x+h) - \psi(x) \big ] f(\psi(c)) }[/itex]

Perhaps more explanation is needed here to make it rigorous?

Thank you sir for stating the general case. I saw that in a textbook a long time ago but I did not jot it down and I have been trying to find it ever since. All the Calculus textbooks that I refer to do not state the result.

The formula Ray is talking about is quoted here http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule. And for justifying your step, you gave the reason. It's a formulation of the mean value theorem. You may need to state some assumptions about continuity, but other than that it's perfectly rigorous.
 
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