Gamma Function Integral in Lagrange Mechanics?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a particle of mass m moving along the x-axis under a potential energy described by \( V = \frac{1}{2}mln(x) \). The original poster seeks to formulate the Lagrange equation and integrate it to determine the time required for the particle to reach the origin, with a specific reference to the Gamma function.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply the Lagrangian mechanics framework but expresses uncertainty about the integration process and the variables involved.
  • Some participants suggest an alternative approach using conservation of energy, indicating that the problem could be solved without the Lagrangian method.
  • Others raise questions about the specific integrals related to the Gamma function and how they might apply to the problem at hand.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring different methods to approach the problem, with some providing guidance on integrating the equations derived from the Lagrangian. There is a recognition of the need to clarify what to integrate and the limits of integration, but no consensus has been reached on a single method.

Contextual Notes

The original poster is constrained by the requirement to use the Lagrange equation specifically, which adds complexity to the discussion. There is also mention of the expected result involving the Gamma function, which is not yet clearly connected to the integration process discussed.

kcirick
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Question:
A particle of mass m starting from rest at x=1 moves along the x-axis toward the origin. Its potential energy is V=\frac{1}{2}mlnx. Write the Lagrange equation and integrate it to find the time required for the particle to reach the origin.

Lagrange Equation in 1-D:
\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial L}{\partial\dot{x}}-\frac{\partial L}{\partial x}=0
L = T - V = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2}-\frac{1}{2}mlnx =\frac{1}{2}m\dot{x}^{2}-\frac{1}{2}mlnx

Substitute L in Lagrange Equation:
\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial}{\partial\dot{x}}\left(\frac{1}{2}m\dot{x}^{2}\right)-\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(-\frac{1}{2}mlnx\right)=0
\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial}{\partial\dot{x}}\left(\frac{1}{2}m\dot{x}^{2}\right)=\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(-\frac{1}{2}mlnx\right)
\frac{d}{dt}m\dot{x}=-\frac{m}{2x}

... And I don't really know what to do from here. The answer is given and it is supposed to be \Gamma\left(\frac{1}{2}\right). Can someone tell me where to go from where I left off? Thank you!
-Rick
 
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i don't know if this will help... but you can do this problem without using the Lagrangian. since the motion is in one dimension, energy is always conserved.

then integrate through dt=dx/v, express v as a function of x using energy. then integrate both side from x=1 to x=0
 
Well, the question says specifically to use the Lagrange Equation. My problem is I don't know what to integrate and what I'm integrating over. Also, I'm assuming I have to use either one of these relations:

\Gamma\left(p\right)=\int^{\infty}_{0}x^{p-1}e^{-x}dx

or

\Gamma\left(p+1\right) = p\Gamma\left(p\right)
 
kcirick said:
Well, the question says specifically to use the Lagrange Equation. My problem is I don't know what to integrate and what I'm integrating over. Also, I'm assuming I have to use either one of these relations:

\Gamma\left(p\right)=\int^{\infty}_{0}x^{p-1}e^{-x}dx

or

\Gamma\left(p+1\right) = p\Gamma\left(p\right)
I think there is another form that will help you. See

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/GammaFunction.html

equation (5)

or

http://numbers.computation.free.fr/Constants/Miscellaneous/gammaFunction.html

equation (1)

Your equation

\frac{d}{dt}m\dot{x}=-\frac{m}{2x}

can be integrated by separating variables

\frac{dv}{dt}=-\frac{1}{2x}

\frac{dv}{dx}\frac{dx}{dt}=v\frac{dv}{dx}=-\frac{1}{2x}

2vdv =-\frac{dx}{x}

Integrate this and set v = 0 at x = 1 and then separate variables and integrate again. That will give you that Euler form for \Gamma\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)
 
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