Generalised Momentum: Defs & Meaning

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Generalized momentum can be defined in two ways: one based on the Lagrangian (p_i = ∂L/∂dot q_i) and the other on kinetic energy (p_i = ∂T/∂dot q_i). The distinction arises when potential energy is dependent on velocity, such as in systems with magnetic fields, making the kinetic energy definition less applicable. In simple mechanical systems, potential energy typically does not depend on velocity, allowing both definitions to align. However, the canonical definition of momentum is strictly tied to the Lagrangian formulation. Understanding these nuances is crucial for accurate application in various physical scenarios.
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I have two books that define generalised momentum differently. Either
##p_i = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q_i}##
or
##p_i = \frac{\partial T}{\partial \dot q_i}##.
Is this since defining generalised momentum only make sense when the potential energy is independent of a coordinate ##q## and hence the above definitions are equal? Or is one of these more general than the other?
 
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The differentiations should be done with respect to the time derivative of ##q##, not ##q## itself. Is ##T## the kinetic energy? In most simple mechanical systems the potential energy is not dependent on velocity.
 
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hilbert2 said:
The differentiations should be done with respect to the time derivative of ##q##, not ##q## itself. Is ##T## the kinetic energy? In most simple mechanical systems the potential energy is not dependent on velocity.

Thanks, missed the dots. Added them now. Yes ##T## is the kinetic energy. Is it possible that the potential energy ##V## depends on ##\dot q##? Is one of these definitions correct in that case?
 
If there are magnetic fields and electric charges in the system, the potential energy depends on velocities. Then you can't use the definition where you differentiate ##T##.
 
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Cheers! That was a good example!
 
The momentum canonically conjugated to the generalized coordinate ##q^i## is defined by
$$p_i=\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{q}^i},$$
and nothing else!
 
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I built a device designed to brake angular velocity which seems to work based on below, i used a flexible shaft that could bow up and down so i could visually see what was happening for the prototypes. If you spin two wheels in opposite directions each with a magnitude of angular momentum L on a rigid shaft (equal magnitude opposite directions), then rotate the shaft at 90 degrees to the momentum vectors at constant angular velocity omega, then the resulting torques oppose each other...

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