Laurentiusson
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Moved from a technical section, so missing the template
Show that the derivative of the integral by looking at it geometrically and using the squeeze theorem:
f(x) = ∫(^x, _0) (dt)/(1+t^2)
is equal to arctan(x).
Clarifying picture: http://i.imgur.com/OgprJ1Z.png
I have done this algebraic but I'm struggling to do it with the conditions given. Sadly I don't find anything similar in my course book.
Someone know how to do this?
f(x)=∫(^x, _0) (dt)/(1+t^2)
Let g(t) = 1/(1+t^2)
Let h(x) = x
h'(x) = 1
f'(x) = g ( h(x) ) h'(x)
f'(x) = g(x) (1)
f'(x) = 1/(1+x^2)
The derivative of this integral is 1/(1+x^2)
How about the geometrical part of it?
f(x) = ∫(^x, _0) (dt)/(1+t^2)
is equal to arctan(x).
Clarifying picture: http://i.imgur.com/OgprJ1Z.png
I have done this algebraic but I'm struggling to do it with the conditions given. Sadly I don't find anything similar in my course book.
Someone know how to do this?
f(x)=∫(^x, _0) (dt)/(1+t^2)
Let g(t) = 1/(1+t^2)
Let h(x) = x
h'(x) = 1
f'(x) = g ( h(x) ) h'(x)
f'(x) = g(x) (1)
f'(x) = 1/(1+x^2)
The derivative of this integral is 1/(1+x^2)
How about the geometrical part of it?