QuantumCosmo
- 29
- 0
Hi,
I was wondering about the U(1)_A problem. The Lagrangian exhibits a (in the limit of vanishing quark masses) U(1)_A symmetry but due to the chiral anomaly, the current J_5^{\mu} is not conserved:
\partial_{\mu}J_5^{\mu} = G\tilde{G} + 2i\bar{u}\gamma_5 u +...
The G\tilde{G} term is itself the divergence of the (not gauge invariant) current K^{\mu}.
(I have left out constant factors etc)
So in the limit of vanishing quark masses, the current \tilde{J}_5^{\mu} = J_5^{\mu} - K^{\mu} is conserved and so is the charge
\tilde{Q}_5 = \int \tilde{J}_5^{\mu} \d^3
Now it seems that although there actually isn't a U(1)_A symmetry in my theory, I still get a Goldstone boson because \tilde{Q}_5 is conserved.
But I thought Goldstone bosons occurred because of spontenously broken continuous symmetries and not because of conserved charges?
Can anyone help me with that?
Thank you very much,
Quantum
I was wondering about the U(1)_A problem. The Lagrangian exhibits a (in the limit of vanishing quark masses) U(1)_A symmetry but due to the chiral anomaly, the current J_5^{\mu} is not conserved:
\partial_{\mu}J_5^{\mu} = G\tilde{G} + 2i\bar{u}\gamma_5 u +...
The G\tilde{G} term is itself the divergence of the (not gauge invariant) current K^{\mu}.
(I have left out constant factors etc)
So in the limit of vanishing quark masses, the current \tilde{J}_5^{\mu} = J_5^{\mu} - K^{\mu} is conserved and so is the charge
\tilde{Q}_5 = \int \tilde{J}_5^{\mu} \d^3
Now it seems that although there actually isn't a U(1)_A symmetry in my theory, I still get a Goldstone boson because \tilde{Q}_5 is conserved.
But I thought Goldstone bosons occurred because of spontenously broken continuous symmetries and not because of conserved charges?
Can anyone help me with that?
Thank you very much,
Quantum